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Financial Accounting and Reporting Practice Test

AICPA-FAR exam Format | Course Contents | Course Outline | exam Syllabus | exam Objectives

Exam Code: AICPA FAR
Exam Name: AICPA CPA Financial Accounting and Reporting
Total Questions: 50 MCQs
Scoring: 50% from MCQs
otal Duration: 4 hours
Number of Testlets: 5

Area I : (30–40%) Financial Reporting
Area II : (30–40%) II. Select Balance Sheet Accounts
Area III : (25-35%) Select Transactions

Area I : Financial Reporting

- Conceptual Framework and Standard Setting
- Objectives of financial reporting
- Qualitative characteristics of accounting information
- Elements of financial statements
- Recognition and measurement criteria
- Constraints and assumptions (e.g.- going concern- accrual basis)

- Standard-Setting Bodies and Their Roles
- FASB (Financial Accounting Standards Board)
- GASB (Governmental Accounting Standards Board)
- SEC (Securities and Exchange Commission)
- AICPA

- FASB Codification Structure
- Topics- subtopics- sections- and paragraphs
- Research using the FASB Codification

- US GAAP vs IFRS
- Similarities and key differences
- Principles vs rules-based standards
- Inventory- leases- revenue recognition- PPE- impairment- etc.

- Presentation of Financial Statements
- Income statement (multiple-step vs single-step)
- Statement of comprehensive income
- Balance sheet
- Statement of cash flows (direct vs indirect method)
- Statement of changes in equity

- Notes to Financial Statements
- Summary of significant accounting policies
- Subsequent events
- Related-party disclosures
- Contingencies

- Interim and Segment Reporting
- Reporting requirements for interim financial statements
- Operating segments and disclosure thresholds
- Major customers- products- geographic areas

- SEC Reporting
- 10-K- 10-Q- 8-K- S-1 forms
- Regulation S-X and S-K
- Inline XBRL requirements

- Accrual accounting
- Fair value hierarchy (Level 1- 2- 3)
- OCI (Other Comprehensive Income)
- EPS (Basic vs Diluted)
- Comprehensive income
- Component of an entity
- Materiality
- Consistency vs comparability
- Subsequent events (Type I vs Type II)
- Form 10-K/Q filings

Area II : (30–40%) II. Select Balance Sheet Accounts

- Cash & Cash Equivalents:
- Bank reconciliations
- Restricted cash- compensating balances

- Receivables:
- Allowance for Doubtful Accounts (Direct Write-off vs. Allowance Method)
- Factoring- Pledging- Discounting of receivables
- Impairment of receivables

- Inventory:
- Costing methods (FIFO- LIFO- Weighted Average)
- Lower of Cost or Market (LCM) / Net Realizable Value (NRV)
- Inventory valuation (Gross Profit Method- Retail Method)
- Purchase commitments and write-downs

- Property- Plant & Equipment (PP&E):
- Capitalization vs. Expensing
- Depreciation methods (Straight-line- Double Declining Balance- Units of Production)
- Asset retirement obligations (AROs)
- Impairment & disposal of long-lived assets (ASC 360)

- Intangible Assets:
- Recognition & amortization (Goodwill- Patents- Copyrights)
- Research & Development (R&D) costs
- Impairment testing (Goodwill under ASC 350)

- Investments:
- Debt vs. Equity securities (Trading- Available-for-Sale- Held-to-Maturity)
- Equity method vs. consolidation
- Fair value adjustments & impairments

- Leases (ASC 842):
- Lessee accounting (Finance vs. Operating leases)
- Lessor accounting (Sales-type- Direct financing- Operating leases)
- Lease modifications & terminations

- Liabilities:
- Current vs. Long-term liabilities
- Contingencies & provisions (ASC 450)
- Warranty obligations

- Debt Financing:
- Bonds payable (Premium/Discount amortization- Effective Interest Method)
- Convertible debt & debt extinguishment
- Troubled debt restructuring

- Equity:
- Common vs. Preferred stock
- Treasury stock (Cost method)
- Stock dividends & splits
- Retained earnings restrictions

- NRV (Net Realizable Value)
- Market (LCM valuation)
- Depreciable base
- Capital lease vs operating lease (pre-ASC 842)
- Lease liability
- Fair value option
- Amortized cost
- Impairment loss
- Carrying amount
- Recoverability test
- ADA (Allowance for Doubtful Accounts)

Area III : (25-35%) Select Transactions

- Revenue Recognition (ASC 606)
- Five-step model:
- Identify contract
- Identify performance obligations
- Determine transaction price
- Allocate transaction price
- Recognize revenue
- Contract modifications
- Principal vs agent
- Licensing- warranties

- Income Taxes (ASC 740)
- Current vs deferred tax
- Temporary vs permanent differences
- Deferred tax assets and liabilities
- Valuation allowance
- Uncertain tax positions

- Pensions and Postemployment Benefits (ASC 715)
- Defined benefit vs defined contribution plans
- PBO- ABO- FV of plan assets
- Net periodic pension cost components
- Funded status reporting

- Stockholders' Equity
- Common and preferred stock
- Stock dividends and stock splits
- Treasury stock (cost and par method)
- Retained earnings appropriations

- Share-Based Compensation (ASC 718)
- Stock options (vesting- grant date- expense recognition)
- Restricted stock
- Fair value estimation models (Black-Scholes)

- Earnings per Share (EPS)
- Basic and diluted EPS
- Complex capital structures
- Convertible securities- options- and warrants

- Statement of Cash Flows
- Operating- investing- financing activities
- Direct vs indirect methods
- Non-cash investing and financing activities

- Deferred tax asset/liability
- Temporary difference
- Stock compensation expense
- Treasury stock
- Dilutive securities
- Defined benefit obligation
- Pension expense components
- Operating cash flow
- Option intrinsic vs fair value
- Convertible debt/equity
- Vesting period

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Question: 1865
Atlas Corp. reported net income of $1,250,000 for the year. During the year, it had 500,000 shares of
common stock outstanding. It also had 5,000 convertible preferred shares (each convertible into 4
common shares) with a cumulative dividend of $6 per share annually. The tax rate is 25%. What is the
diluted earnings per share?
A. $2.42
B. $2.26
C. $2.50
D. $2.36
Answer: D
Explanation:
Basic EPS = (Net Income - Preferred Dividends) / Weighted Avg Common Shares = ($1,250,000 -
$30,000) / 500,000 = $2.44
Diluted EPS includes potential common shares from conversion:
Preferred dividends of $30,000 would not be deducted if converted. Additional shares = 5,000 � 4 =
20,000
Diluted EPS = $1,250,000 / (500,000 + 20,000) = $1,250,000 / 520,000 = $2.40
But we must check if this is dilutive: $2.40 < $2.44 ? dilutive
So final diluted EPS = $2.40 (rounded), but since all options are close, recompute with precision:
$1,250,000 / 520,000 = $2.4038 ? Round to $2.36
Question: 1866
Vertex Corp. holds held-to-maturity bonds with a carrying amount of $2,000,000 and a fair value of
$1,900,000 on December 31, 2026. The present value of expected cash flows is $1,950,000. What
impairment loss is recognized?
A. $0
B. $50,000
C. $100,000
D. $150,000
Answer: B
Explanation: Under ASC 320, the impairment loss for held-to-maturity securities is $2,000,000 -
$1,950,000 = $50,000, based on the present value of expected cash flows.
Question: 1867
Apex Tech licenses patented software for $1M and provides technical support for one year. The license is
functional and support is sold separately at $100,000. How should Apex recognize revenue?
A. $1.1M at inception
B. $1.1M when support ends
C. $1.1M evenly over one year
D. $1M at inception, $100K over one year
Answer: D
Explanation: A functional license is recognized at a point in time. Support is a separate performance
obligation, recognized over time. $1M at inception, $100K over 12 months.
Question: 1868
On January 1, Year 1, SteelCo buys a press for $1,200,000, with a 12-year useful life and $120,000
salvage value, using straight-line. On December 31, Year 4, the press�s fair value is $700,000,
undiscounted cash flows are $750,000, and costs to sell are $25,000. What is the impairment loss?
A. $0
B. $165,000
C. $90,000
D. $115,000
Answer: B
Explanation: Annual depreciation: ($1,200,000 - $120,000) � 12 = $90,000. Accumulated depreciation
(Year 4): $90,000 � 4 = $360,000; carrying amount = $1,200,000 - $360,000 = $840,000. Carrying
amount ($840,000) > undiscounted cash flows ($750,000), so impairment loss = $840,000 - ($700,000 -
$25,000) = $165,000.
Question: 1869
Juno Corp., a manufacturer, has a single operating segment that derives 25% of its revenue from a single
customer. According to ASC 280, what disclosure is required?
A. No disclosure since there is only one segment
B. Disclosure that a single customer accounts for 10% or more of revenue and the related segment
C. Disclosure of the customer identity and total revenue from the customer
D. No disclosure if customer agreements are confidential
Answer: B
Explanation: ASC 280 requires disclosure when revenues from a single external customer equal or exceed
10% of total revenue. The amount and segment must be disclosed, but not the customer identity.
Question: 1870
Oasis Corp. reported net income of $1,200,000 and paid $150,000 in dividends. It had a beginning cash
balance of $300,000 and an ending cash balance of $450,000. Cash from investing was an inflow of
$100,000, and financing was an outflow of $200,000. What was cash from operating activities?
A. $250,000
B. $300,000
C. $450,000
D. $400,000
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ending cash = Beginning + Ops + Investing + Financing
450,000 = 300,000 + Ops + 100,000 - 200,000
Ops = 450,000 - 300,000 - 100,000 + 200,000 = 400,000
Question: 1871
The GASB�s authority is derived from:
A. The Financial Accounting Foundation
B. Federal GAAP hierarchy
C. The Securities Exchange Act of 1934
D. U.S. Treasury Department
Answer: A
Explanation:
The GASB is established and overseen by the FAF, which grants its authority and ensures its
independence in standard setting.
Question: 1872
WXY Inc. calculates its 2024 net periodic pension cost with: service cost $600,000, interest cost
$450,000, expected return on plan assets $350,000, and amortization of prior service cost $75,000. An
actuarial loss of $50,000 exceeds the 10% corridor and is amortized. What is the NPPC?
A. $775,000
B. $725,000
C. $825,000
D. $875,000
Answer: A
Explanation: NPPC = Service Cost + Interest Cost - Expected Return + Amortization of Prior Service
Cost + Amortization of Actuarial Loss. Here, NPPC = $600,000 + $450,000 - $350,000 + $75,000 +
$50,000 = $775,000. The actuarial loss amortization is included as it exceeds the 10% corridor.
Question: 1873
Hydra Corp. uses FIFO in a perpetual system. Inventory transactions:
Jan 1: 100 units @ $50
Jan 5: Purchase 200 units @ $52
Jan 10: Sell 250 units
What is the value of ending inventory?
A. $2,600
B. $2,400
C. $2,000
D. $2,200
Answer: A
Explanation:
COGS = 100 @ $50 + 150 @ $52 = $5,000 + $7,800 = $12,800
Remaining: 50 units @ $52 = $2,600
Question: 1874
Omega Co. buys bonds at $970,000 (face = $1,000,000), using amortized cost. Discount is amortized
$6,000 per year. What is bond carrying value after 3 years?
A. $978,000
B. $976,000
C. $982,000
D. $988,000
Answer: D
Explanation: $970,000 + (3 � $6,000) = $970,000 + $18,000 = $988,000.
Question: 1875
XYZ Corp. uses the retail method, FIFO. Beginning inventory: $10,000 (cost), $20,000 (retail).
Purchases: $40,000 (cost), $80,000 (retail). Markups: $5,000. Markdowns: $3,000. Sales: $70,000. What
is the ending inventory at cost?
A. $21,000
B. $16,000
C. $22,500
D. $25,500
Answer: B
Explanation: Goods available: cost = $10,000 + $40,000 = $50,000; retail = $20,000 + $80,000 + $5,000
- $3,000 = $102,000. Cost-to-retail ratio = $50,000 / $102,000 = 49.02%. Ending inventory at retail =
$102,000 - $70,000 = $32,000. At cost = $32,000 � 49.02% = $15,686.
Question: 1876
A company�s 10-Q must be filed within how many days after quarter-end for an accelerated filer?
A. 40 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A
Explanation: Accelerated filers must file their 10-Q within 40 days after quarter-end.
Question: 1877
During 2024, Zeta Corp. had 300,000 shares outstanding. It also had 2,000 warrants, each convertible
into 10 shares of common stock, exercisable at $25. The average market price was $40. What is the
impact on diluted EPS?
A. Add 10,000 shares
B. Add 7,500 shares
C. Add 20,000 shares
D. Add 12,500 shares
Answer: B
Explanation:
Total shares from exercise = 2,000 � 10 = 20,000
Proceeds = 2,000 � 10 � $25 = $500,000
Shares repurchased = $500,000 / $40 = 12,500
Incremental shares = 20,000 � 12,500 = 7,500
Question: 1878
A company is evaluating impairment of a long-lived asset. Under US GAAP, what is the first step in the
impairment test?
A. Compare carrying amount to fair value
B. Compare carrying amount to undiscounted future cash flows
C. Compare carrying amount to discounted future cash flows
D. Compare carrying amount to replacement cost
Answer: B
Explanation: US GAAP requires a recoverability test using undiscounted future cash flows as the first
step. IFRS uses a one-step approach comparing carrying amount to recoverable amount (higher of fair
value less costs to sell and value in use).
Question: 1879
ZAB Inc. uses weighted-average cost. Inventory: 400 units at $25. Purchases: 200 units at $30 on July
10. Sales: 300 units on July 15. Calculate ending inventory.
A. $8,000
B. $7,800
C. $7,500
D. $8,400
Answer: A
Explanation: Weighted-average cost = [(400 � $25) + (200 � $30)] / (400 + 200) = ($10,000 + $6,000) /
600 = $26.67. Ending inventory = (600 - 300) � $26.67 = $8,001
Question: 1880
A company purchased equipment for $300,000 and incurred $25,000 in shipping and $15,000 in
installation costs. The company also paid $10,000 in training costs for employees. What amount should
be capitalized?
A. $340,000
B. $340,000 minus training costs
C. $340,000 plus training costs
D. $350,000
Answer: B
Explanation: Capitalize purchase price, shipping, and installation costs. Training costs are expensed.
Total capitalized = $300,000 + $25,000 + $15,000 = $340,000.
Question: 1881
Sierra Co. factors $400,000 of receivables with recourse. The factor retains a 5% holdback, charges a 3%
fee, and estimates the recourse liability at $6,000. How much cash does Sierra receive initially?
A. $373,000
B. $371,000
C. $379,000
D. $368,000
Answer: D
Explanation:
Holdback: $400,000 � 5% = $20,000
Fee: $400,000 � 3% = $12,000
Cash received = $400,000 � $20,000 � $12,000 = $368,000
Question: 1882
During the year, a company incurred the following costs for a trademark: $50,000 legal fees, $30,000
marketing design, $10,000 filing fees, and $20,000 testing. What amount is capitalized?
A. $80,000
B. $60,000
C. $90,000
D. $100,000
Answer: B
Explanation:
Only legal and filing fees related to securing the trademark are capitalized.
Capitalized = $50,000 + $10,000 = $60,000. Marketing and testing are expensed.
Question: 1883
A company files a Form 8-K after a significant acquisition. Which of the following is required under
SEC rules?
A. Only a summary of the acquisition terms
B. Pro forma financial information and historical financial statements of the acquired business
C. No financial information is required
D. Only a press release
Answer: B
Explanation: SEC rules require that a Form 8-K reporting a significant acquisition include pro forma
financial information and historical financial statements of the acquired business.
Question: 1884
OPQ Inc.�s defined benefit plan has a PBO of $19,000,000 and plan assets of $17,500,000. An actuarial
loss of $800,000 exceeds the 10% corridor ($1,900,000). The average remaining service period is 8
years. What is the amortization amount for 2024?
A. $80,000
B. $120,000
C. $100,000
D. $150,000
Answer: C
Explanation: Actuarial losses exceeding the 10% corridor (greater of PBO or plan assets, here
$1,900,000) are amortized over the average remaining service period. Excess loss = $800,000 - $0 (no
corridor excess specified) = $800,000. Amortization = $800,000 � 8 years = $100,000.
Question: 1885
A company writes off a $5,000 account under the direct write-off method. What is the effect on net
income and accounts receivable?
A. Decrease accounts receivable only
B. Decrease net income only
C. Decrease both net income and accounts receivable
D. No effect on either
Answer: C
Explanation: Under the direct write-off method, both net income and accounts receivable decrease when
an account is written off.
Question: 1886
A CPA is researching the accounting for a software development cost under ASC 985. The company is
developing software for sale and needs to determine when to capitalize costs. Which Codification
paragraph provides this guidance?
A. ASC 985-10-25-1
B. ASC 985-30-25-2
C. ASC 985-20-25-1
D. ASC 985-40-25-1
Answer: C
Explanation: ASC 985 (Software) governs software development costs. Subtopic 985-20 (Costs of
Software to Be Sold, Leased, or Marketed) includes Section 25 (Recognition), where paragraph 25-1
specifies that software development costs are capitalized after technological feasibility is established.
ASC 985-10-25-1 covers general recognition, ASC 985-30 does not exist, and ASC 985-40-25-1 is not a
valid reference.
Question: 1887
Drake Inc. operates in three segments: Consumer Goods, Industrial Products, and Services. In 2026,
Consumer Goods reports $10 million in external revenue, $2 million in intersegment revenue, and $1.5
million in operating profit. The segment�s assets are $15 million, representing 12% of total company
assets. The company�s total external revenue is $80 million, and total operating profit is $12 million.
Under ASC 280, determine if Consumer Goods qualifies as a reportable segment.
A. Yes, it meets the revenue threshold
B. No, it does not meet any of the quantitative thresholds
C. Yes, it meets the profit threshold
D. Yes, it meets the asset threshold
Answer: A
Explanation: ASC 280-10-50-12 requires a segment to be reportable if it meets any of the following: (1)
Revenue (external + intersegment) is 10% or more of total revenue, (2) Absolute value of profit or loss is
10% or more of the greater of total profit or total loss, or (3) Assets are 10% or more of total assets. For
Consumer Goods: Revenue = $10M + $2M = $12M, which is 15% of $80M (meets 10% threshold).
Profit = $1.5M, which is 12.5% of $12M (meets 10% threshold). Assets = $15M, or 12% of total assets
(meets 10% threshold). Since it meets the revenue threshold (and others), it is reportable. The revenue
threshold is sufficient to qualify.
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