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Graduate Record Examination Practice Test

GRE exam Format | Course Contents | Course Outline | exam Syllabus | exam Objectives

Test Detail:
The GRE (Graduate Record Examinations) is a standardized test designed to assess the readiness of students for graduate-level studies. The test consists of multiple-choice questions and constructed-response tasks in three sections: Verbal Reasoning- Quantitative Reasoning- and Analytical Writing. Here is a detailed overview of the GRE test- including the number of questions and time- course outline- exam objectives- and exam syllabus.

Number of Questions and Time:
The GRE test consists of three sections- each with a different number of questions and time limits:

1. Verbal Reasoning:
- Number of Questions: Approximately 40 questions (20 per section)
- Time Limit: 30 minutes per section

2. Quantitative Reasoning:
- Number of Questions: Approximately 40 questions (20 per section)
- Time Limit: 35 minutes per section

3. Analytical Writing:
- Number of Tasks: One "Issue" task and one "Argument" task
- Time Limit: 30 minutes per task

Course Outline:
The GRE does not have a specific course outline- as it is a test that assesses a student's general knowledge and skills. However- test-takers can prepare for the exam by focusing on the following key areas:

1. Verbal Reasoning:
- reading Comprehension: Understanding and analyzing written passages.
- Text Completion: Filling in the missing words in a given text.
- Sentence Equivalence: Selecting the correct words to complete a sentence.

2. Quantitative Reasoning:
- Arithmetic: Numbers- operations- percentages- and ratios.
- Algebra: Equations- inequalities- functions- and exponents.
- Geometry: Lines- angles- triangles- circles- and polygons.
- Data Analysis: Interpreting and analyzing data from tables- graphs- and charts.

3. Analytical Writing:
- Issue Task: Analyzing and presenting arguments on a given issue.
- Argument Task: Evaluating and critiquing an argument and proposing alternative explanations or solutions.

Exam Objectives:
The objectives of the GRE test include:
- Assessing the test-taker's readiness for graduate-level academic work.
- Evaluating critical thinking skills- analytical reasoning- and problem-solving abilities.
- Providing graduate schools and programs with a standardized measure for admissions and scholarship decisions.

Exam Syllabus:
The GRE test covers a broad range of content areas. The syllabus includes:

1. Verbal Reasoning Section:
- reading Comprehension: Understanding and analyzing written passages from various disciplines.
- Text Completion: Filling in the missing words in a given text to maintain coherence and meaning.
- Sentence Equivalence: Selecting the correct words to complete a sentence with equal meaning.

2. Quantitative Reasoning Section:
- Arithmetic: Operations- percentages- ratios- and proportions.
- Algebra: Equations- inequalities- functions- and exponents.
- Geometry: Lines- angles- triangles- circles- and polygons.
- Data Analysis: Interpreting and analyzing data from tables- graphs- and charts.

3. Analytical Writing Section:
- Issue Task: Analyzing a given issue- presenting an argument- and supporting it with evidence and examples.
- Argument Task: Evaluating an argument- identifying logical flaws- and providing alternative explanations or solutions.

Note: The specific content and emphasis within each section may vary from test to test- but the overall structure and objectives remain consistent.

It's important to note that the GRE is periodically updated- and the test content and format may change. It is recommended to consult the official GRE website or authorized test centers for the most up-to-date information regarding the test.

KE GRE Sections in Files
------------------------

GRE File 1
-----------
Section 1: Analogies Part 1
Section 2: Analogies Part 2
Section 3: Basic Algebra
Section 4: Advanced Algebra
Section 5: Averages and Rounding
Section 6: Arithmetic
Section 7: Commas
Section 8: Estimation and Sequences
Section 9: Exponents
Section 10: Fractions and Square Roots
Section 11: Geometry
Section 12: Basic Grammar
Section 13: Intermediate Grammar
Section 14: Advanced Grammar
Section 15: Graphs
Section 16: Basic Math
Section 17: Intermediate Math
Section 18: Advanced Math
Section 19: Comparison Math Questions
Section 20: Measurement
Section 21: Nouns
Section 22: Percents and Ratios
Section 23: Basic reading Comprehension

GRE File 2
----------
Section 1: Reading
Section 2: reading for the Main Idea
Section 3: reading for the Main Idea
Section 4: reading for the Main Idea
Section 5: reading for the Main Idea
Section 6: reading for the Main Idea
Section 7: reading for the Main Idea
Section 8: reading for the Main Idea
Section 9: reading for the Main Idea
Section 10: reading Vocabulary
Section 11: Sentence Correction
Section 12: Sentence Flow
Section 13: Usage Test 1
Section 14: Usage Test 2
Section 15: Usage Test 3
Section 16: Verbs
Section 17: Writing Section 1
Section 18: Writing Section 2

GRE File 3
----------
Section: Quantitative

GRE File 4
----------
Section 1: Analogies
Section 2: Antonyms
Section 3: Sentence Completion
Section 4: reading Comprehension

GRE File 5
----------
Section: Reading

GRE File 6
----------
Section: reading / Writing / Verbal

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Graduate Record Examinations (Latest QAs Set) - 2026
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(Graduate Record Examination)
Sections Detail:
GRE File 1 GRE File 2
Section 1: Analogies Part 1 Section 1: Reading
Section 2: Analogies Part 2 Section 2: reading for the Main Idea
Section 3: Basic Algebra Section 3: reading for the Main Idea
Section 4: Advanced Algebra Section 4: reading for the Main Idea
Section 5: Averages and Rounding Section 5: reading for the Main Idea
Section 6: Arithmetic Section 6: reading for the Main Idea
Section 7: Commas Section 7: reading for the Main Idea
Section 8: Estimation and Sequences Section 8: reading for the Main Idea
Section 9: Exponents Section 9: reading for the Main Idea
Section 10: Fractions and Square Roots Section 10: reading Vocabulary
Section 11: Geometry Section 11: Sentence Correction
Section 12: Basic Grammar Section 12: Sentence Flow
Section 13: Intermediate Grammar Section 13: Usage Test 1
Section 14: Advanced Grammar Section 14: Usage Test 2
Section 15: Graphs Section 15: Usage Test 3
Section 16: Basic Math Section 16: Verbs
Section 17: Intermediate Math Section 17: Analytical Writing Section 1
Section 18: Advanced Math Section 18: Analytical Writing Section 2
Section 19: Comparison Math Questions
Section 20: Measurement
Section 21: Nouns
Section 22: Percents and Ratios
Section 23: Basic reading Comprehension
GRE File 3 GRE File 5
Section: Quantitative Section: Verbal
GRE File 4 - Verbal GRE File 6
Section 1: Analogies Section: Verbal
Section 2: Antonyms Section: Reading
Section 3: Sentence Completion Section: Writing
Section 4: reading Comprehension
Section 1: Sec One (1 to 94)
Details: subject 1, Analogies
QUESTION: 1
SCALE : TONE :
A. spectrum : color
B. texture : sensation
C. wave : frequency
D. prism : hue
E. form : shape
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is a �part-to-whole� analogy. A musical SCALE is comprised of a series of TONES
that are arranged in a fixed sequence; similarly, the spectrum is comprised of a series of
colors arranged in a particular sequence.
QUESTION: 2
SANDAL : FOOTPRINT ::
A. sock : carpet
B. river : gorge
C. galosh : puddle
D. cleat : turf
E. boat : wake
Answer: E
Explanation:
This is a �symptom or sign� analogy. A SANDAL leaves behind it a FOOTPRINT that
traces the sandal�s path; similarly, a boat leaves behind it awake that traces the boat�s path.
QUESTION: 3
DAM : DELUGE ::
A. treat : disease
B. settle : dispute
C. lock : theft
D. harvest : crop
E. assemble : pieces
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is an �operates against� (prevention) analogy. You DAM (a body of water) to prevent
a DELUGE (sudden, enormous flow); similarly, you lock something like a door or a safe in
order to prevent at heft
QUESTION: 4
WAR : OFFENSIVE ::
A. school : student
B. waterfall : river
C. slumber : dream
D. stadium : soccer
E. game : poker
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is an �environment for� analogy. An OFFENSIVE (a noun here) is an event�a planned
attack�that typically occurs during a WAR. Similarly, a dream is an event that typically
occurs during slumber (deep sleep). As for choice (D), soccer is an event that might take
place in a stadium. But to say that soccer usually occurs in a stadium would be an
overstatement. Also, a stadium is a physical place, whereas WAR and slumber are events.
QUESTION: 5
SONG : SERENADE ::
A. appointment : tryst
B. play : vignette
C. memorandum: letter
D. arrangement : commitment
E. book : novel
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is a �type of� (special category) analogy. A SERENADE is a special kind of SONG,
one sung by a lover to his beloved, sometimes in secret; similarly, a tryst is a special kind
of appointment, one made by lovers, often in secret.
QUESTION: 6
HAND : GNARLED :
A. tree : tall
B. foot : cramped
C. flower : crushed
D. brow : creased
E. tire : flat
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is a type of �symptom or manifestation� analogy. A HAND may become GNARLED
(knotted and twisted) with age, just as a brow may become creased(wrinkled or ridged) with
age. Gnarls and creases are each a manifestation of gradual deterioration. Since a tire goes
flat abruptly and for one of many possible reasons, choice.is not as strong an analogy as
choice (D).
QUESTION: 7
OSCILLATE : PENDULUM ::
A. obligate : promise
B. swim : pool
C. purchase : product
D. shake : earthquake
E. travel : automobile
Answer: E
Explanation:
This is an �inherent function� analogy. A PENDULUM is designed to OSCILLATE (move
back and forth); similarly, an automobile is designed to travel.
QUESTION: 8
ARCHITECT : CREATIVE ::
A. partisan : impartial
B. traitor : disloyal
C. soldier : obedient
D. consumer : prosperous
E. prisoner : rebellious
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is as �ideal characteristic� analogy. Ideally, an ARCHITECT is CREATIVE; similarly,
an ideal soldier is one who is obedient; that is, one who obeys the orders of a superior officer.
ChoiceB.is incorrect because disloyalty is not just an ideal characteristic of a traitor; it is the
defining characteristic.
QUESTION: 9
DESIGNATION : STIGMA ::
A. odor : fragrance
B. circumstance : predicament
C. legislation : statute
D. advice : command
E. falsehood : lie
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is a �negative form of� analogy. A STIGMA (mark or sign of disgrace) is an unwanted
DESIGNATION. Similarly, a predicament(difficult situation) is an unwanted circumstance.
QUESTION: 10
TEACHER : INSTRUCTION ::
A. lawyer : crime
B. army : regiment
C. doctor : disease
D. student : learning
E. guard : protection
Answer: E
Explanation:
This is an �inherent function� analogy. The function of a TEACHER is to provide
INSTRUCTION for another; similarly, the function of a guard is to provide protection for
another. As for choice (D), although the �function� of a student might be said to learn, it is
not to provide learning for another. So choiceE.is not as strong an analogy as choice (D).
Section 1: Sec One (1 to 20)
Details: Analogies Part 1
QUESTION: 1
DRIP : GUSH
A. cry : laugh
B. curl : roll
C. stream : tributary
D. dent : destroy
E. bend : angle
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
WALK : LEGS
A. blink : eyes
B. chew : mouth
C. dress : hem
D. cover : book
E. grind : nose
Answer: B
QUESTION: 3
ENFRANCHISE : SLAVERY
A. equation : mathematics
B. liberate : confine
C. bondage : subjugation
D. appeasement : unreasonable
E. anatomy : physiology
Answer: B
QUESTION: 4
UNION JACK : VEXILLOLOGY
A. toad : ornithology
B. turtle : microbiology
C. gymnosperms : botany
D. friend : home economics
E. algae : zoology
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5
TOPAZ : YELLOW
A. diamond : carat
B. jeweler : clarity
C. sapphire : red
D. amethyst : purple
E. amber : blue
Answer: D
QUESTION: 6
LUMEN : BRIGHTNESS
A. candle : light
B. density : darkness
C. nickel : metal
D. inches : length
E. color : hue
Answer: D
Section 1: Sec One (1 to 7)
Details:
Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together with her
husband, Pierre, she discovered radium, an element widely used for treating cancer, and
studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie's amicable
collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom. Marie was born in 1867 in
Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a professor of physics. At the early age, she
displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for learning
prompted her to continue with her studies after high school. She became disgruntled,
however, when she learned that the university in Warsaw was closed to women.
Determined to receive a higher education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1891 entered
the Sorbonne, a French university, where she earned her master's degree and doctorate in
physics. Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest
scientists of her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in
1895 and spent many productive years working together in the physics laboratory. A
short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a horse-drawn wagon in
1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish.
espondently she recalled their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in
scientific research. The fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself greatly
increased her distress. Curie's feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was
asked to succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first
woman to be given a professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911 she received
the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie eventually
suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she never became disillusioned
about her work. Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and
to revealing the mysteries of the physical world.
QUESTION: 1
The Curies' ____ collaboration helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.
A. friendly
B. competitive
C. courteous
D. industrious
E. chemistry
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2
Marie had a bright mind and a __personality.
A. strong
B. lighthearted
C. humorous
D. strange
E. envious
Answer: B
QUESTION: 3
When she learned that she could not attend the university in Warsaw, she felt___.
A. hopeless
B. annoyed
C. depressed
D. worried
E. none of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION: 4
Marie ___ by leaving Poland and traveling to France to enter the Sorbonne.
A. challenged authority
B. showed intelligence
C. behaved
D. was distressed
E. answer not available in article
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
_____she remembered their joy together.
A. Dejectedly
B. Worried
C. Tearfully
D. Happily
E. Sorrowfully
Answer: A
QUESTION: No: 1
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: C
Explanation: To determine Quantity A, substitute the number 2 for a and for b in the centered equation:
(2 + 2)(22 2) = (4)(0) = 0 Follow the same procedure for the quantity in Column B:
The quantities in both columns equal zero (0).
QUESTION: No: 2
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: A
Explanation:
For any fractional number between zero (0) and 1, the number is less than its square root, which in turn is
less than its cube root.
QUESTION: No: 3
The circumference of circle D The length of AB plus. twice
the length ofCD
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: A
Explanation: A circIe�s circumference isd�the product of(a bit greaterthan3.1) and the circIe�s diameter. If
AB and CD were each as large as possible, they would each equal the circIe�s diameter. Three times this
length is still be less thand.
QUESTION: No: 4
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: D
Explanation: Without knowing either interest rate, it is impossible to compute either quantity in order to
make the comparison.
QUESTION: No: 5
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: C
Explanation: There are 2 prime numbers between 10 and 15: 11 and 13. The integer 33 has 2 prime
factors: 3 and 11.
QUESTION: No: 6
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: A
Explanation: Given n= 2, the 25th term of Set R = 25n+ 25 = 25(2) + 25 = 75. Given n= 2, the 24th term of
Set S =n+ 23 = 2 + 23 = 25, and two times that 24th term is 50.
QUESTION: No: 7
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: C
Explanation: There�s no need to calculate either quantity, and you can cancel the products from both
columns. To make the comparison, observe the place-value shifts from the decimal number 9.3. In
Column A, the decimal point shifts 3 places left (9,300) and 3 places right (.0093), so the quantity is
equivalent to (9.3) (9.3). You can now see that Quantity B, which is (9.3)(9.3), is the same as Quantity A.
QUESTION: No: 8
A farmer wants to fence a rectangular horse corral with an area of 12,000 square feet. Fence posts along
each side will be 10 feet apart at their center.
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: B
Explanation: There�s no need to calculate either quantity. Given an area of 12,000 square feet, the
shortest possible rectangular perimeter is achieved with a square, in which all sides are the same length.
Column B describes a corral with a width of 300 feet and a length of 400 feet. This corral would require
more fence posts than a square corral.
QUESTION: No: 9
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: B
QUESTION: No: 10
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: A
Explanation: Q percent is based on $100. Therefore, Q percent = Q dollars, and Quantity B will always be
$1 less than Quantity A.
QUESTION: No: 11
A. The quantity in Column A is greater;
B. The quantity in Column B is greater;
C. The quantities are equal;
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: C
Explanation: x+y+ the measure of the third interior angle (Iet�s call itw) = 180. AIso,w+z= 180 (because
their angles combine to form a straight line). So, you have two equations: x+y+w= 180 or x+y= 180 -w
w+z= 180 orz= 180 -w Therefore,x+y=z(Quantity A = Quantity B)
QUESTION: 1
The victory of the small Greek democracy of Athens over the mighty Persian empire in 490
B. C. is one of the most famous events in history. Darius, king of the Persian empire, was
furious because Athens had interceded for the other Greek city-states in revolt against
Persian domination. In anger the king sent an enormous army to defeat Athens. He thought
it would take drastic steps to pacify the rebellious part of the empire. Persia was ruled by
one man. In Athens, however, all citizens helped to rule. Ennobled by this participation,
Athenians were prepared to die for their city-state. Perhaps this was the secret of the
remarkable victory at Marathon, which freed them from Persian rule. On their way to
Marathon, the Persians tried to fool some Greek city-states by claiming to have come in
peace. The frightened citizens of Delos refused to believe this. Not wanting to abet the
conquest of Greece, they fled from their city and did not return until the Persians had left.
They were wise, for the Persians next conquered the city of Etria and captured its people.
Tiny Athens stood alone against PersiA. The Athenian people went to their sanctuaries.
There they prayed for deliverance. They asked their gods to expedite their victory. The
Athenians refurbished their weapons and moved to the plain of Marathon, where their little
band would meet the Persians. At the last moment, soldiers from Plataea reinforced the
Athenian troops. The Athenian army attacked, and Greek citizens fought bravely. The
power of the mighty Persians was offset by the love that the Athenians had for their city.
Athenians defeated the Persians in archery and hand combat. Greek soldiers seized Persian
ships and burned them, and the Persians fled in terror. Herodotus, a famous historian, reports
that 6400 Persians died, compared with only 192 Athenians. The Athenians
were_________by some soldiers who arrived from Plataea.
A. welcomed
B. strengthened
C. held
D. captured
E. answer not available
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
The Trojan War is one of the most famous wars in history. It is well known for the tenyear
duration, for the heroism of a number of legendary characters, and for the Trojan horse.
What may not be familiar, however, is the story of how the war began. According to Greek
myth, the strife between the Trojans and the Greeks started at the wedding of Peleus, King
of Thessaly, and Thetis, a sea nymph. All of the gods and goddesses had been invited to the
wedding celebration in Troy except Eris, goddesses of discord. She had been omitted from
the guest list because her presence always embroiled mortals and immortals alike in conflict.
To take revenge on those who had slighted her, Eris decided to cause a skirmish. Into the
middle of the banquet hall, she threw a golden apple marked �for the most beautiful.� All
of the goddesses began to haggle over who should possess it. The gods and goddesses
reached a stalemate when the choice was narrowed to Hera, Athena, and Aphrodite.
Someone was needed to settle the controversy by picking a winner. The job eventually fell
to Paris, son of King Priam of Troy, who was said to be a good judge of beauty. Paris did
not have an easy job. Each goddess, eager to win the golden apple, tried aggressively to
bribe him. �I'll grant you vast kingdoms to rule, �promised HerA. �Vast kingdoms are
nothing in comparison with my gift,� contradicted AthenA. �Choose me and I'll see that you
win victory and fame in war.� Aphrodite outdid her adversaries, however. She won the
golden apple by offering Helen, Zeus' daughter and the most beautiful mortal, to Paris. Paris,
anxious to claim Helen, set off for Sparta in Greece. Although Paris learned that Helen was
married, he accepted the hospitality of her husband, King Menelasu of Sparta, anyway.
Therefore, Menelaus was outraged for a number of reasons when Paris departed, taking
Helen and much of the king's wealth back to Troy. Menelaus collected his loyal forces and
set sail for Troy to begin the war to reclaim Helen.
Eris was known for _____both mortals and immortals.
A. scheming against
B. involving in conflict
C. feeling hostile toward
D. ignoring
E. comforting
Answer: B
QUESTION: 3
The Trojan War is one of the most famous wars in history. It is well known for the tenyear
duration, for the heroism of a number of legendary characters, and for the Trojan horse.
What may not be familiar, however, is the story of how the war began. According to Greek
myth, the strife between the Trojans and the Greeks started at the wedding of Peleus, King
of Thessaly, and Thetis, a sea nymph. All of the gods and goddesses had been invited to the
wedding celebration in Troy except Eris, goddesses of discord. She had been omitted from
the guest list because her presence always embroiled mortals and immortals alike in conflict.
To take revenge on those who had slighted her, Eris decided to cause a skirmish. Into the
middle of the banquet hall, she threw a golden apple marked �for the most beautiful.� All
of the goddesses began to haggle over who should possess it. The gods and goddesses
reached a stalemate when the choice was narrowed to Hera, Athena, and Aphrodite.
Someone was needed to settle the controversy by picking a winner. The job eventually fell
to Paris, son of King Priam of Troy, who was said to be a good judge of beauty. Paris did
not have an easy job. Each goddess, eager to win the golden apple, tried aggressively to
bribe him. �I'll grant you vast kingdoms to rule, �promised HerA. �Vast kingdoms are
nothing in comparison with my gift,� contradicted AthenA. �Choose me and I'll see that you
win victory and fame in war.� Aphrodite outdid her adversaries, however. She won the
golden apple by offering Helen, Zeus' daughter and the most beautiful mortal, to Paris. Paris,
anxious to claim Helen, set off for Sparta in Greece. Although Paris learned that Helen was
married, he accepted the hospitality of her husband, King Menelasu of Sparta, anyway.
Therefore, Menelaus was outraged for a number of reasons when Paris departed, taking
Helen and much of the king's wealth back to Troy. Menelaus collected his loyal forces and
set sail for Troy to begin the war to reclaim Helen. Each goddess tried _____to bribe Paris.
A. boldly
B. effectively
C. secretly
D. carefully
E. answer not stated
Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
The Trojan War is one of the most famous wars in history. It is well known for the tenyear
duration, for the heroism of a number of legendary characters, and for the Trojan horse.
What may not be familiar, however, is the story of how the war began. According to Greek
myth, the strife between the Trojans and the Greeks started at the wedding of Peleus, King
of Thessaly, and Thetis, a sea nymph. All of the gods and goddesses had been invited to the
wedding celebration in Troy except Eris, goddesses of discord. She had been omitted from
the guest list because her presence always embroiled mortals and immortals alike in conflict.
To take revenge on those who had slighted her, Eris decided to cause a skirmish. Into the
middle of the banquet hall, she threw a golden apple marked �for the most beautiful.� All
of the goddesses began to haggle over who should possess it. The gods and goddesses
reached a stalemate when the choice was narrowed to Hera, Athena, and Aphrodite.
Someone was needed to settle the controversy by picking a winner. The job eventually fell
to Paris, son of King Priam of Troy, who was said to be a good judge of beauty. Paris did
not have an easy job. Each goddess, eager to win the golden apple, tried aggressively to
bribe him. �I'll grant you vast kingdoms to rule, �promised HerA. �Vast kingdoms are
nothing in comparison with my gift,� contradicted AthenA. �Choose me and I'll see that you
win victory and fame in war.� Aphrodite outdid her adversaries, however. She won the
golden apple by offering Helen, Zeus' daughter and the most beautiful mortal, to Paris. Paris,
anxious to claim Helen, set off for Sparta in Greece. Although Paris learned that Helen was
married, he accepted the hospitality of her husband, King Menelasu of Sparta, anyway.
Therefore, Menelaus was outraged for a number of reasons when Paris departed, taking
Helen and much of the king's wealth back to Troy. Menelaus collected his loyal forces and
set sail for Troy to begin the war to reclaim Helen. Athena _____ Hera, promising Paris
victory and fame in war.
A. denied the statement of
B. defeated
C. agreed with
D. restated the statement
E. questioned the statement
Answer: A
Question: 1
Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best
answer to each question. Answer all the questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in
that passage.
Food science authorities have, in latest years, begun recommending that those persons who prepare their own
whole grains begin by soaking the grains. Most grains contain phytic acid, which can prevent proper mineral
absorption. For instance, phytic acid can block the body�s ability to absorb iron from foods and thus raise the
potential over time for anemia. Soaking the grains for several hours, however, reduces the level of phytic acid
within them and makes the grains such
as rice, wheat, and quinoa easier to digest. In fact, persons who struggle with digesting gluten, a common
ingredient within grains like wheat, find that they are
considerably more tolerant once the phytic acid has been reduced or removed. The soaking process is as simple as
adding warm water to the grains for as long
as twelve hours in advance of preparing them and then allowing the grains to sit in the water for a while.
Based on the information provided within the passage, which of the following statements best defines the term food
science?
A. The science of food preparation and the way that the chemical content of food alters during cooking.
B. The study of the chemical ingredients within food and the properties of those chemical ingredients.
C. The complex chemical ingredients that are found within grains and the way these chemicals affect the
body.
D. The study of domestic food preparation and the differences between cooking food at home and the
commercial preparation of food.
E. An emerging field that utilizes modern technology to study ancient grains and how the body utilizes them.
Answer: B
Food science is mentioned without definition within the passage, but the information provided about phytic acid
and the comments from food scientists regarding the soaking of grains provide enough detail for inference. Based
on the information in the passage, it can safely be said that a food scientist considers the chemicals in food and
analyzes the properties of those chemicals. The passage does not offer enough information to indicate that food
science is related solely to food preparation, particularly since phytic acid is an ingredient in grains prior to their
preparation. The passage is based primarily on a chemical within grains, but the claim that food science is limited
entirely to grains is too narrow. If this were the case, the field would likely be called grain science, instead of food
science. The passage mentions people preparing their grains at home, but it mentions nothing about the
commercial preparation of food, so it cannot be said that food science is limited to domestic food preparation. The
author makes no mention of the use of modern technology, so "The study of domestic food preparation and the
differences�" cannot be inferred from the passage.
Question: 2
The mystery of the Roanoke Colony never has been solved to any satisfaction, although a number of theories have
arisen over the years. Some historians have suggested that the Roanoke colonists simply attempted to return to
England but died in the effort. Cannibalism by area tribes and attacks by the Spanish have also been proposed as
explanations for the disappearance of the colonists, but neither theory holds much weight among historical experts
who argue conflicting evidence. Two other theories, however, remain popular as potential solutions. One historian
has put forth the idea that the Roanoke colonists relocated away from the original settlement and eventually were
killed by the powerful Chief Powhatan; the chief is said to have claimed responsibility for their deaths, because the
colonists allied themselves with a tribe that did not support the powerful chief. Alternatively, other historians have
located evidence to suggest that the people of Roanoke took shelter with area tribes and eventually became part of
them. A number of Native American groups along the Mid-Atlantic claim European descent and share common
features generally recognized as European.
Considering the information in the passage, which of the following could explain why historical experts reject the
theory of the Spanish attacking Roanoke Colony?
A. Archeologists have not located any evidence of ammunition in the area around Roanoke Colony and have
concluded that no guns were fired at the colonists.
B. Historical documents indicate that at the time the Roanoke colonists disappeared, the Spanish
government had not yet discovered where the English had settled in the New World.
C. The English settlements in the New World had continued to anger the Spanish government, and led to
ongoing tension between the two nations.
D. There is historical evidence that the Spanish government was working closely with Chief Powhatan to
develop a treaty with the English.
E. The large number of Native American tribes around Roanoke Colony makes it more likely that cannibals
attacked the settlers before the Spanish could.
Answer: B
The Spanish cannot attack a colony if they are unaware of its location. Historical documents indicating that the
Spanish government had not yet discovered the location of Roanoke would certainly lend credence to the claims of
historians
"who argue conflicting evidence" regarding the theory of Spanish attack. Colonies can be attacked by more ways
than just gunfire, so the idea that archeologists cannot find ammunition represents weak evidence against a
Spanish attack. "The English settlements in the New World had continued to anger�" offers an option that does
more to support the idea of Spanish attack rather than offering evidence to conflict with it. "There is historical
evidence that the Spanish government was working�" combines ideas in the paragraph but also confuses them; the
author notes that Chief Powhatan "claimed responsibility for their deaths, because the colonists allied themselves
with a tribe that did not support him".
It makes little sense then for him to claim to have killed the Roanoke colonists if he was working to forge a treaty
that would protect them. The author of the passage clearly negates the theory about a cannibal attack, so "The
large number of Native American tribes around Roanoke Colony�" cannot be correct.
Question: 3
Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best
answer to each question. Answer all the questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in
that passage.
Iceland�s Althing represented an important development in making the people of a nation an active part of the
system that governed them. The meeting of the Althing brought together the main leaders of communities across
the island; these local leaders all gathered to discuss and determine legal issues. The Althing also welcomed the
free men of Iceland to present their claims, disputes, and the like. Althing attendees met at L�gberg, meaning "Law
Rock," and the
Althing brought together the main leaders of communities across the island; these local leaders all gathered to
discuss and determine legal issues. The Althing also welcomed the free men of Iceland to present their claims,
disputes, and the like. Althing attendees met at L�gberg, meaning "Law Rock," and the
L�gs�guma�ur, or Lawspeaker, would oversee the event. The first activity was for the Lawspeaker to read a list of
all applicable laws. The Lawspeaker would also offer necessary moderation in the case of disputes and provide an
overriding sense of order. Also part of the Althing was the L�gretta, a legislative organization that supported the
Lawspeaker by determining laws and settling legal disagreements.
Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following best summarizes the purpose of the
Althing within Iceland�s political system?
A. To provide a stable system of government for the free men of Iceland
B. To unite the citizenry of Iceland against the invasion of foreign powers
C. To determine the laws of Iceland and to provide the free men with a role in their government
D. To develop leaders within the communities and to make them as self-governing as possible
E. To develop an island-wide legislative system that was consistent in application
Answer: C
The author notes that the purpose of the Althing was "to discuss and determine legal issues". In addition, the first
sentence points out that the Althing
"represented an important development in making the people of a nation an active part of the system that governed
them". This statement clearly matches the information that the Althing�s purpose was to "determine the laws of
Iceland and to provide the free men with a role in their government". While the Althing might have contributed to
creating a stable government in Iceland, that is not its purpose as noted in the passage. The author points out that
the Althing called together the leaders from each community, but nothing in the passage suggests that the Althing
developed leaders or attempted to make the communities self-governing.
Additionally, the author of the passage says nothing about uniting the citizenry against foreign powers. And while
it might be inferred that the Althing contributed to developing consistent application of the laws, this answer choice
does not offer as good a summary as the information in "To provide a stable system of government for the free men
of Iceland".
Question: 4
Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best
answer to each question. Answer all the questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in
that passage.
Food science authorities have, in latest years, begun recommending that those persons who prepare their own
whole grains begin by soaking the grains. Most grains contain phytic acid, which can prevent proper mineral
absorption. For instance, phytic acid can block the body�s ability to absorb iron from foods and thus raise the
potential over time for anemia. Soaking the grains for several hours, however, reduces the level of phytic acid
within them and makes the grains such
as rice, wheat, and quinoa easier to digest. In fact, persons who struggle with digesting gluten, a common
ingredient within grains like wheat, find that they are
considerably more tolerant once the phytic acid has been reduced or removed. The soaking process is as simple as
adding warm water to the grains for as long
as twelve hours in advance of preparing them and then allowing the grains to sit in the water for a while.
Which of the following best describes the problem with phytic acid in grains?
A. Phytic acid is a natural ingredient within most foods, but it increases in whole grains and makes them
difficult to digest.
B. Phytic acid prevents the body from absorbing essential minerals that occur naturally in food.
C. Phytic acid binds with the naturally occurring minerals in food and creates toxicity during cooking.
D. Phytic acid has a tendency to attach itself to gluten and thus make grains indigestible for persons with a
gluten intolerance.
E. Phytic acid attacks the body�s digestive system and raises the potential for health problems.
Answer: B
Early in the passage, the author says, "Most grains contain phytic acid, which can prevent proper mineral
absorption. For instance, phytic acid can block the body�s ability to absorb iron from foods and thus raise the
potential over time for anemia". This statement matches the information in "Phytic acid prevents the body from
absorbing essential�". The author says nothing about phytic acid binding with the minerals; instead, the author
explains that phytic acid blocks mineral absorption. The author does not discuss the amount of phytic acid within
other foods; as the passage only discusses phytic acid within grains, there is no way to determine if the amount in
grains is higher than in other foods (or if phytic acid is found in other foods at all). The passage mentions both
phytic acid and gluten, and the author points out that reducing the phytic acid can make glutinous grains easier to
digest for those persons with gluten-intolerance; but this assertion is not enough to make the leap that phytic acid
attaches itself to gluten. Finally, the passage makes no claim about phytic acid attacking the body�s digestive
system; rather, it seems that the harm is more passive.
Question: 5
Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best
answer to each question. Answer all the questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in
that passage.
It might be surprising to discover that Europe�s first republic pre-dated the turn of the 11th century, long before
Europe would see the rise of another such system. Around 870 AD, settlers from Norway began arriving in
Iceland, and they eventually established a government system that gave all free men on the island a voice in
legislative and judicial affairs. In approximately 930 AD, the leaders of Iceland created the Althing, considered the
oldest parliament in the world. This system, and Iceland�s identity as a republic, remained in place until 1262,
when the decision of the Althing agreed to the Old Covenant and placed
Iceland under the authority of the king of Norway. Iceland would not become a selfgoverning republic again until
1944, when the people of Iceland voted to end their political relationship with the kingdom of Denmark.
The passage indicates which of the following about the development of republics in Europe?
A. The republic that developed in Iceland lacked the stability it needed to survive.
B. It would be many years before another republic would develop in Europe.
C. The republic in Iceland ultimately was unable to withstand subjugation by another nation.
D. The modern republics in Europe have far more sophistication than Iceland�s early republic.
E. Monarchy was a far more common system of government for most of Europe�s history.
Answer: B
In the first sentence, the author notes the following: "It might be surprising to discover that Europe�s first republic
pre-dated the turn of the 11th century, long before Europe would see the rise of another such system." This
statement clearly indicates that Iceland�s republic came well before another in Europe, so indeed it was "many
years" before another republic emerged in Europe. The author of the passage mentions a monarchy in Norway and
Denmark, but this mention alone is not enough to assume that monarchy was the more common system based only
on the information in the passage. The information in "The republic in
Iceland ultimately was unable to withstand�" and "The republic that developed in Iceland lacked the stability it
needed�" focuses solely on the republic in Iceland, and this counters the question-with its focus on the
development of republics in Europe. Additionally, the author mentions that Iceland is currently a republic, but this
mention alone is not enough to comment on modern republics in Europe or on the level of "sophistication" that
defines them.
Question: 6
Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best
answer to each question. Answer all the questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in
that passage.
Iceland�s Althing represented an important development in making the people of a nation an active part of the
system that governed them. The meeting of the Althing brought together the main leaders of communities across
the island; these local leaders all gathered to discuss and determine legal issues. The Althing also welcomed the
free men of Iceland to present their claims, disputes, and the like. Althing attendees met at L�gberg, meaning "Law
Rock," and the
Althing brought together the main leaders of communities across the island; these local leaders all gathered to
discuss and determine legal issues. The Althing also welcomed the free men of Iceland to present their claims,
disputes, and the like. Althing attendees met at L�gberg, meaning "Law Rock," and the
L�gs�guma�ur, or Lawspeaker, would oversee the event. The first activity was for the Lawspeaker to read a list of
all applicable laws. The Lawspeaker would also offer necessary moderation in the case of disputes and provide an
overriding sense of order. Also part of the Althing was the L�gretta, a legislative organization that supported the
Lawspeaker by determining laws and settling legal disagreements.
The passage provides information about the Lawspeaker and his role at the Althing. Using the information in the
passage as a guide, which of the following modern political roles is most similar to that of the Icelandic
Lawspeaker?
A. Speaker of the House
B. President of the Senate
C. Lieutenant Governor
D. Secretary of State
E. President
Answer: A
The Althing was largely a legislative body with a degree of judicial authority. The role of the Lawspeaker was to
oversee the Althing, read the laws, moderate disputes, and oversee the assembly. This role is ultimately similar to
the role of the Speaker of the House within the U.S. House of Representatives, who oversees the activities of the
House and moderates when necessary. The Lawspeaker had a much lesser role than that of the President or of a
Lieutenant
Governor (who acts in a role similar to the Vice President, but within a state instead of at the federal level). The
President of the Senate oversees the Senate and casts the occasional tie-breaking vote but has nowhere near the
same presence or the role as the Speaker of the House. The Secretary of State is largely a bureaucratic position
with political responsibilities, but it does not offer a comparative position to the Lawspeaker.
Question: 7
Passage
[1] An atmospheric gas that absorbs and emits thermal radiation in the infrared range is known as a greenhouse gas.
[2] Without such gases, the surface temperature of the earth would have been a frigid instead of the current. [3]
Many climate scientists claim that human activities since the beginning of the
Industrial Revolution have led to a steady increase in the atmospheric concentration of many greenhouse gases,
with a consequent increase in the planet�s surface temperature by about in the last 130 years. [4] However, in order
to correctly estimate the anthropogenic changes in earth�s surface temperature, it is important to quantify the effect
of external natural factors like large volcanic eruptions on the planet�s surface temperature.
[5] Though volcanic eruptions emit carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas, the atmospheric concentration of this gas is
about 16000 times the amount released by volcanic eruptions; therefore, no matter how large a volcanic eruption is,
it cannot produce a significant change in the atmospheric carbon dioxide levels. [6]
Further, the total amount of carbon dioxide emitted per year by volcanic eruptions � between 130 and 230 million
tons � is roughly equivalent to that emitted in only three to five days of human activity.
[7] It is mainly through the emission of sulfur dioxide gas and ash particles into the atmosphere that large volcanic
eruptions affect earth�s surface temperature.
[8] Sulfur dioxide reacts with the water vapor present in air to form fine particles called sulfate aerosols. [9] Winds
spread the cloud of aerosols and ash particles around the globe in weeks. [10] These particles absorb incoming
solar radiation and scatter it back into space, thereby producing a cooling effect on the earth.
[11] They take several years to settle out of the atmosphere and thus impact the global surface temperature for
many years. [12] Robock and Mao have shown that for two years after a great volcanic eruption, the surface
temperature decreases by. [13] The 1991 Pinatubo eruption in Indonesia was one of the largest volcanic eruptions
in the twentieth century and resulted in a global surface cooling of for about two to four years after the eruption.
[14] The El Chichn eruption in 1982 was the first major eruption whose climatic impact was studied in detail by
modern instruments. [15] Though the emission volume of this eruption was similar to the Mount St. Helens
eruption in 1980, El Chichn released seven times the amount of sulfate aerosols released by
Mount St. Helens and lowered the earth�s temperature by about as against a decrease of only for Mount St. Helens.
The author�s primary purpose in the passage is to
A. explain how a particular natural factor impacts a climate metric
B. suggest an alternative explanation for a temporal change observed in a climate metric
C. discuss the different natural factors that impact a climate metric
D. delineate the effects of a natural factor on two climate metrics
E. disprove a claim about the impact of a particular natural factor on a climate metric
Answer: A
Before looking at the answer choices, let�s relook at the passage:
Paragraph 1 � The author starts with anthropogenic changes to earth�s surface temperature, and then suggests
that we ought to quantify the changes to this metric from volcanic eruptions.
Paragraph 2 � Product 1 (carbon dioxide) of volcanic eruptions is discussed and is shown to have negligible
impact on this metric.
Paragraph 3 � Products 2 (sulfur dioxide gas) and 3 (ash) of volcanic eruptions are shown to have a significant
impact on this metric, and the mechanism by which this impact is realized is discussed. Paragraph 4 � The relative
impact of Products 2 (sulfur dioxide gas) and 3 (ash) on this metric is suggested.
Let us now look at the options:
A. This option is correct. The "particular factor" is one specific external natural factor, namely "volcanic
eruptions". The "climate metric" is "earth�s surface temperature".
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