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National Physical Therapy Examination Practice Test

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The Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT) administers the National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE)- the examination that every graduate of a physical therapy or physical therapist assistant education program must pass to become a licensed physical therapist or licensed/certified physical therapist assistant (or to regain licensure/certification if lapsed) in the United States (US). Foreign-educated candidates who wish to become licensed in the US must also take and pass this examination.

The NPTE is a computer-administered examination. The physical therapist licensure examination has five sections each with 50 questions. Of the 250 multiple choice questions- only 200 are scored. The other 50 questions are being pretested to see if they meet the standards to be included in future exams. The physical therapist assistant licensure examination has four sections with a total of 200 multiple choice questions. As in the physical therapist examination- 50 of these questions are being pre-tested and are not scored.

Scoring
The scoring ranges from 200-800. The minimum passing score is 600 for both the PT and PTA exam.

Location
Testing is administered at Prometric Testing Centers. Candidates are not required to test in the jurisdiction for which they are applying for licensure.

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Category: Medical & Healthcare
NPTE
National Physical Therapy Examination 2026
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/NPTE
Question: 626
A 12-year-old boy with Legg-Calv�-Perthes' disease of the right hip is being
evaluated for surgical treatment. Which of the following radiographic findings
would indicate the need for a varus osteotomy?
A. Lateral extrusion of the femoral head
B. Fragmentation of the femoral head
C. Decreased joint space width
D. Increased joint space width
Answer: A
Explanation: Lateral extrusion of the femoral head is a radiographic finding
that would indicate the need for a varus osteotomy in the surgical management
of Legg-Calv�-Perthes' disease. Varus osteotomy involves rotating the femoral
neck and head into a more varus position, which helps to recontain the femoral
head within the acetabulum and prevent further deformity. Fragmentation of
the femoral head, decreased joint space width, and increased joint space width
are not necessarily indications for a varus osteotomy, as they can occur during
the natural disease progression without the need for this specific surgical
procedure.
Question: 627
A 52-year-old patient with chronic low back pain secondary to lumbar disc
herniation presents to the physical therapy clinic. The patient reports that the
pain is worse with prolonged sitting or standing. Which of the following TENS
parameter settings would be MOST appropriate for this patient's condition?
A. High-frequency, low-intensity TENS
B. Low-frequency, high-intensity TENS
C. Burst-mode TENS
D. Acupuncture-like TENS
Answer: B
Explanation: Low-frequency, high-intensity TENS is the most appropriate
parameter for chronic low back pain secondary to lumbar disc herniation. This
type of TENS stimulates the small unmyelinated C-fibers and can effectively
reduce pain associated with musculoskeletal conditions, such as disc herniation.
High-frequency, low-intensity TENS is more effective for acute pain, while
burst-mode TENS and acupuncture-like TENS are primarily used for
neuropathic pain conditions.
Question: 628
A 62-year-old man with a history of knee osteoarthritis presents with sudden-
onset pain and swelling over the medial aspect of his knee. He reports that the
symptoms began after a fall while walking. On physical examination, there is
tenderness to palpation over the pes anserine bursa. Which of the following is
the MOST likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Trauma
D. Pes anserine bursitis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Trauma is the MOST likely underlying cause in this patient presentation. The
patient's history of a fall, which precipitated the sudden-onset of pain and
swelling, strongly suggests a traumatic etiology. While the patient's underlying
osteoarthritis may have contributed to the development of pes anserine bursitis,
the acute nature of the symptoms and the temporal relationship to the fall
indicate that the primary underlying cause is likely a traumatic injury to the pes
anserine bursa.
Question: 629
A 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) presents with progressive shortness of breath, fatigue, and peripheral
edema. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.30, PaCO2 of 55 mmHg,
and PaO2 of 60 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute respiratory acidosis
B. Chronic respiratory acidosis
C. Acute respiratory alkalosis
D. Chronic respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B
Explanation: The combination of a low pH, elevated PaCO2, and reduced PaO2
is indicative of chronic respiratory acidosis, which is commonly seen in
patients with COPD. Acute respiratory acidosis would have a higher pH, and
acute or chronic respiratory alkalosis would have a lower PaCO2.
Question: 630
A patient with a history of total knee arthroplasty (TKA) presents with
decreased quadriceps strength and difficulty performing functional activities.
The MOST appropriate intervention to address this impairment is:
A. Electrical stimulation of the quadriceps muscle.
B. Passive range of motion (PROM) exercises.
C. Strengthening exercises using resistance bands.
D. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) for pain relief.
Answer: C
Explanation: The MOST appropriate intervention to address the decreased
quadriceps strength and difficulty performing functional activities in a patient
with a history of total knee arthroplasty (TKA) is strengthening exercises using
resistance bands. Restoring quadriceps strength is a critical component of
rehabilitation following TKA.
Question: 631
A patient with severe diarrhea presents with the following arterial blood gas
values:
pH: 7.58
Bicarbonate (HCO3-): 40 mEq/L
PaCO2: 50 mmHg
PaO2: 92 mmHg
FiO2: 0.21
Which of the following best describes the patient's acid-base status?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: D
Explanation: The patient has a high pH (7.58), high bicarbonate (40 mEq/L),
and high PaCO2 (50 mmHg), indicating metabolic alkalosis. The severe
diarrhea has led to a loss of gastric acid (hydrochloric acid), resulting in an
increase in pH and bicarbonate.
Question: 632
A 48-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with
gradually worsening pain and swelling over the medial aspect of her knee. She
reports that the symptoms are worse with activity and are accompanied by
stiffness. On physical examination, there is tenderness to palpation over the pes
anserine bursa. Which of the following is the MOST likely underlying cause of
this patient's condition?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Trauma
D. Pes anserine bursitis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Rheumatoid arthritis is the MOST likely underlying cause in this patient
presentation. The patient's history of rheumatoid arthritis, a chronic
autoimmune condition, increases her risk of developing bursitis, including pes
anserine bursitis. The gradual worsening of symptoms with activity and
accompanying stiffness are characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis-related joint
inflammation. While the localized tenderness over the pes anserine bursa on
physical examination suggests the presence of pes anserine bursitis, this is
likely a manifestation of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis in this case.
Question: 633
A 40-year-old patient with a history of chronic kidney disease presents to
physical therapy with generalized weakness and fatigue. Their resting blood
pressure is 150/95 mmHg. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of
this hypertension?
A. Volume overload
B. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activation
C. Sympathetic nervous system overactivity
D. Endothelial dysfunction and vascular stiffness
Answer: B
Explanation: Chronic kidney disease is often associated with activation of the
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to sodium and fluid retention as
well as vasoconstriction, which can result in hypertension. Volume overload,
sympathetic overactivity, and endothelial dysfunction are also contributing
factors, but the primary mechanism in chronic kidney disease is the
dysregulation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Question: 634
A 45-year-old computer programmer presents with gradual-onset numbness and
tingling in the 4th and 5th digits of her right hand. On examination, she has
decreased sensation to light touch in the ulnar nerve distribution and weakness
with abduction of the 5th digit. Tinel's sign is positive over the pisiform bone.
The MOST likely cause of the patient's symptoms is:
A. Compression of the ulnar nerve at Guyon's canal
B. Compression of the median nerve at the carpal tunnel
C. Entrapment of the radial nerve in the spiral groove
D. Entrapment of the posterior interosseous nerve
Answer: A
Explanation: The patient's presentation of isolated numbness and tingling in the
4th and 5th digits, along with ulnar nerve-specific sensory and motor deficits,
is characteristic of ulnar nerve entrapment. The positive Tinel's sign over the
pisiform bone, which is a key landmark for Guyon's canal, indicates that the
MOST likely cause is compression of the ulnar nerve as it passes through this
fibro-osseous tunnel at the wrist. Carpal tunnel syndrome would affect the
median nerve distribution, radial nerve entrapment would cause more proximal
symptoms, and posterior interosseous nerve entrapment would not produce the
observed ulnar nerve deficits.
Question: 635
A 9-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy presents to physical
therapy with complaints of increased difficulty with ambulation and frequent
falls. During the assessment, the physical therapist observes that the child has
significant tightness in the hip flexor and hamstring muscle groups, which is
limiting his range of motion and contributing to a crouched gait pattern. The
MOST appropriate initial intervention for this patient is:
A. Referring the patient to an orthopedic surgeon for consideration of
multilevel orthopedic surgery to address the muscle contractures and improve
gait.
B. Initiating a course of serial casting to gradually increase range of motion in
the hip and knee joints.
C. Recommending the use of knee-ankle-foot orthoses (KAFOs) to provide
stability and support during ambulation.
D. Implementing a physical therapy plan focused on strengthening the lower
extremity musculature and stretching the tight muscle groups.
Answer: D
Explanation: The most appropriate initial intervention for the 9-year-old child
with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy and a crouched gait pattern is to implement
a physical therapy plan focused on strengthening the lower extremity
musculature and stretching the tight muscle groups.
In spastic diplegic cerebral palsy, the lower extremities are typically more
affected than the upper extremities, and the muscle tightness in the hip flexors
and hamstrings can contribute to a crouched gait pattern. A targeted physical
therapy program that addresses these muscle imbalances through a combination
of strengthening and stretching exercises can help Strengthen the child's range of
motion, joint positioning, and overall gait mechanics.
Referring the patient to an orthopedic surgeon for multilevel orthopedic surgery
(option A) may be a consideration, but it should not be the initial intervention,
as more conservative management should be attempted first.
Initiating a course of serial casting (option B) can be an effective intervention,
but it should be considered after the initial strengthening and stretching
program has been implemented, as it may be more appropriate for more severe
or resistant muscle contractures.
Recommending the use of knee-ankle-foot orthoses (KAFOs) (option C) can be
a valuable adjunct to the physical therapy program, but it should not be the
primary intervention, as it does not address the underlying muscle imbalances
and contractures.
Question: 636
A 62-year-old patient with a history of a previous rotator cuff repair presents
with persistent shoulder pain and decreased range of motion. During the
physical examination, the physical therapist notes weakness with external
rotation of the shoulder. Which of the following tests would be the most
appropriate to assess the integrity of the teres minor muscle?
A. Lift-off test
B. Belly-press test
C. External rotation lag sign
D. Empty can test
Answer: C
Explanation: The external rotation lag sign is a specific test used to assess the
integrity of the teres minor muscle. This test evaluates the patient's ability to
actively maintain their shoulder in external rotation against gravity, which is
primarily controlled by the teres minor. The other tests listed assess different
shoulder muscles and functions.
Question: 637
A 40-year-old woman presents with weakness of wrist and finger flexion, as
well as decreased sensation in the distribution of the median nerve. Where is
the MOST likely site of median nerve entrapment?
A. Pronator teres
B. Carpal tunnel
C. Anterior interosseous nerve
D. Lacertus fibrosus
Answer: B
Explanation: The patient's symptoms of median nerve distribution weakness
and sensory deficits are most consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome, where the
median nerve becomes entrapped as it passes through the carpal tunnel at the
wrist. This is the most common site of median nerve entrapment.
Question: 638
A 62-year-old patient is 2 weeks post-op from a total hip arthroplasty using a
posterolateral surgical approach. During a physical therapy session, the
therapist instructs the patient to perform active hip flexion, medial rotation, and
adduction exercises. What is the primary concern with this intervention at this
stage of recovery?
A. The movements may lead to excessive stress on the hip abductor muscles.
B. The movements could increase the risk of postoperative hip dislocation.
C. The movements may cause excessive pain and inflammation in the hip joint.
D. The movements may delay the healing process of the posterior hip capsule.
Answer: B
Explanation: The posterolateral surgical approach for total hip arthroplasty
involves detachment and reattachment of the posterior hip capsule and short
external rotator muscles. This makes the hip joint particularly vulnerable to
dislocation in the early postoperative period, especially with the combination of
hip flexion, medial rotation, and adduction. This specific movement pattern
places the prosthetic femoral head in a precarious position relative to the
acetabular component, significantly increasing the risk of dislocation. Avoiding
these movements is crucial during the initial 2-4 weeks of recovery to allow the
posterior soft tissues to heal and regain stability around the new hip joint.
Question: 639
A 55-year-old patient with heart failure is participating in a cardiac
rehabilitation program. During a moderate intensity exercise session, the
patient's oxygen uptake efficiency slope (OUES) is measured and found to be
decreased compared to normative values. This OUES response is:
A. Normal
B. Improved
C. Blunted
D. Concerning
Answer: C
Explanation: The oxygen uptake efficiency slope (OUES) is a measure of
cardiorespiratory fitness, and in patients with heart failure, it is typically
blunted compared to healthy individuals. A decreased OUES during moderate
intensity exercise indicates the patient's ability to efficiently utilize oxygen is
impaired, a hallmark of the cardiovascular and respiratory limitations seen in
heart failure. This blunted OUES response is concerning and may warrant
further evaluation and adjustments to the exercise prescription to optimize the
patient's exercise capacity.
Question: 640
A 9-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy presents to physical
therapy with complaints of decreased mobility and frequent falls. During the
evaluation, the physical therapist observes that the child has significant
tightness in the hamstring and gastrocnemius muscle groups, leading to a
crouched gait pattern. The MOST appropriate intervention to address the child's
primary impairment is:
A. Referring the child to an orthopedic surgeon for consideration of lower
extremity tendon lengthening or muscle-tendon unit lengthening procedures.
B. Implementing a physical therapy plan focused on strengthening the
quadriceps and hip extensor muscle groups, as well as stretching the tight
muscle groups.
C. Recommending the use of ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs) to provide stability
and support during ambulation.
D. Initiating a course of serial casting to gradually increase range of motion in
the ankle and knee joints.
Answer: B
Explanation: The most appropriate intervention to address the primary
impairment of the 9-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy and a
crouched gait pattern is to implement a physical therapy plan focused on
strengthening the quadriceps and hip extensor muscle groups, as well as
stretching the tight muscle groups.
In spastic diplegic cerebral palsy, the lower extremities are typically more
affected, and the tightness in the hamstring and gastrocnemius muscle groups
can contribute to a crouched gait pattern. By focusing on strengthening the
antagonist muscle groups, such as the quadriceps and hip extensors, and
implementing a targeted stretching program for the tight muscle groups, the
physical therapist can help address the underlying muscle imbalances and
improve the child's gait mechanics.
Referring the child to an orthopedic surgeon for lower extremity tendon
lengthening or muscle-tendon unit lengthening procedures (option A) may be a
consideration, but it should not be the initial intervention, as more conservative
management should be attempted first.
Recommending the use of ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs) (option C) can be a
valuable adjunct to the physical therapy program, but it should not be the
primary intervention, as it does not directly address the underlying muscle
imbalances.
Initiating a course of serial casting (option D) can be an effective intervention,
but it should be considered after the initial strengthening and stretching
program has been implemented, as it may be more appropriate for more severe
or resistant muscle contractures.
Question: 641
A 62-year-old patient presents with a new-onset confusion and disorientation.
The patient's medical history is significant for well-controlled type 2 diabetes
mellitus. The most likely contributing factor to the patient's disorientation is:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Cerebrovascular accident
Answer: B
Explanation: Hypoglycemia is the most likely contributing factor to the
patient's disorientation in this case. Hypoglycemia can cause neurological
symptoms, including confusion and disorientation, particularly in patients with
diabetes. Hyperglycemia and diabetic ketoacidosis are more likely to cause
gradual onset of altered mental status, not sudden-onset disorientation. A
cerebrovascular accident would be less likely in a patient with well-controlled
diabetes.
Question: 642
A 75-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease is brought to the emergency
department with confusion, lethargy, and Kussmaul breathing. Arterial blood
gas analysis reveals the following values:
pH 7.14, PaCO2 18 mmHg, HCO3- 6 mmol/L.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's acid-base
disorder?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Chronic respiratory acidosis
C. Acute renal failure
D. Chronic metabolic acidosis
Answer: D
Explanation: The patient's arterial blood gas values (pH 7.14, PaCO2 18
mmHg, HCO3- 6 mmol/L) indicate the presence of a severe metabolic acidosis.
The low HCO3- concentration and low pH are characteristic of metabolic
acidosis, while the low PaCO2 represents respiratory compensation. Chronic
kidney disease is a common cause of chronic metabolic acidosis due to the
impaired ability of the kidneys to excrete acid and retain bicarbonate.
Question: 643
A 27-year-old male presents to the clinic 1 week after sustaining a knee injury
while playing basketball. He reports significant pain, swelling, and decreased
range of motion. When performing the Lachman's test, you note increased
anterior tibial translation with a "soft endpoint" compared to the uninjured side.
What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A. Immobilize the knee in a brace and refer for physical therapy
B. Obtain radiographs to rule out a fracture
C. Recommend immediate arthroscopic ACL reconstruction
D. Initiate a course of oral corticosteroids
Answer: A
Explanation: The appropriate next step in management for this patient with a
suspected complete ACL tear based on the positive Lachman's test findings is
to immobilize the knee in a brace and refer the patient for physical therapy.
While the Lachman's test suggests a complete ACL tear, further diagnostic
imaging such as MRI is needed to confirm the diagnosis and assess for
associated injuries. Immediate surgical referral or corticosteroid use would be
premature without confirmed MRI findings. Radiographs are indicated to rule
out a fracture, but are not the primary next step.
Question: 644
A 7-year-old girl with spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy presents to physical
therapy for an initial evaluation. The girl's parents report that she has difficulty
with gross motor skills, such as walking and running, and experiences frequent
falls. During the evaluation, the physical therapist observes that the girl has
significant muscle spasticity in all four limbs, with a predominance in the lower
extremities. The most appropriate intervention for this patient is:
A. Prescribing a home exercise program focused on strengthening the upper
extremities to Strengthen her ability to push herself in a manual wheelchair.
B. Recommending the use of ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs) to Strengthen her gait
and reduce the risk of falls.
C. Referring the patient to an occupational therapist for evaluation and
recommendations on assistive technology to enhance her independence in daily
living activities.
D. Initiating a course of constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) to
improve upper extremity function and motor control.
Answer: B
Explanation: The most appropriate intervention for the 7-year-old girl with
spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy is to recommend the use of ankle-foot
orthoses (AFOs) to Strengthen her gait and reduce the risk of falls.
In spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy, the predominant spasticity is typically in
the lower extremities, which can lead to poor gait mechanics and an increased
risk of falls. AFOs can help Strengthen the alignment and function of the ankle
and foot, providing support and stability during ambulation. This can help the
patient walk more safely and reduce the frequency of falls, which is a
significant concern reported by the parents.
Prescribing a home exercise program focused on strengthening the upper
extremities (option A) may not be the most appropriate initial intervention, as
the primary issue is the impaired gait and increased fall risk due to the lower
extremity spasticity.
Referring the patient to an occupational therapist for assistive technology
evaluation (option C) can be a valuable complementary intervention, but it
should not be the primary focus at this stage, as the physical therapist should
first address the immediate mobility and safety concerns.
Initiating constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) (option D) is not the
most appropriate intervention in this case, as CIMT is typically used to improve
upper extremity function and motor control, which are not the primary concerns
reported by the parents.
Question: 645
A 44-year-old male patient presents with mid-thoracic spine pain and limited
rotation. Examination reveals hypomobility with left rotation at the T8-T9
spinal segment. Which of the following techniques would be most appropriate
to address the hypomobility?
A. Prone mid-thoracic spine segmental rotation mobilization
B. Seated mid-thoracic spine Maitland mobilization in side-bending
C. Supine mid-thoracic spine Mulligan sustained natural apophyseal glide
(SNAG)
D. Sidelying mid-thoracic spine high-velocity low-amplitude thrust
Answer: A
Explanation: The hypomobility with left rotation at the T8-T9 spinal segment
indicates a specific mobility deficit in the rotational plane. A prone mid-
thoracic spine segmental rotation mobilization would be the most appropriate
technique to address this hypomobility. This technique allows for targeted
mobilization of the restricted rotational motion at the specific spinal segment.
Question: 646
A patient presents with a complete ACL tear confirmed by magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI). Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
management?
A. Immediate surgical reconstruction
B. Functional bracing and physical therapy
C. Immobilization in a long leg cast
D. Corticosteroid injection into the knee joint
Answer: B
Explanation: The initial management of a complete ACL tear typically involves
a trial of functional bracing and physical therapy, unless the patient has an
associated unstable knee or other significant ligamentous/meniscal injury.
Surgical reconstruction is often considered if conservative management fails to
restore knee stability and function. Immobilization and corticosteroid injections
are not recommended as first-line treatment for complete ACL tears.
Question: 647
A 38-year-old woman presents with weakness of wrist and finger flexion, as
well as decreased sensation in the distribution of the median nerve. Where is
the MOST likely site of median nerve entrapment?
A. Pronator teres
B. Carpal tunnel
C. Anterior interosseous nerve
D. Lacertus fibrosus
Answer: B
Explanation: The patient's symptoms of median nerve distribution weakness
and sensory deficits are most consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome, where the
median nerve becomes entrapped as it passes through the carpal tunnel at the
wrist. This is the most common site of median nerve entrapment.
Question: 648
A 14-year-old male soccer player presents with a 6-month history of anterior
knee pain that is aggravated by running and kicking. Physical examination
reveals tenderness and swelling over the tibial tuberosity. Radiographic
imaging shows fragmentation and irregularity of the tibial apophysis. Which of
the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this
patient?
A. Recommendation of complete rest from all sports activities
B. Prescription of oral anti-inflammatory medication
C. Referral to an orthopedic surgeon for surgical intervention
D. Initiation of a physical therapy program with eccentric strengthening
Answer: D
Explanation: The MOST appropriate next step in the management of this
patient with Osgood-Schlatter disease is the initiation of a physical therapy
program with a focus on eccentric strengthening exercises. Physical therapy can
help address the underlying muscle imbalances and biomechanical factors that
contribute to the condition, while allowing the patient to continue participating
in sports activities with appropriate modifications. Recommendation of
complete rest from all sports activities is not necessary and may lead to
deconditioning and decreased long-term function. Prescription of oral anti-
inflammatory medication can provide symptomatic relief, but does not address
the underlying pathology. Referral to an orthopedic surgeon for surgical
intervention is typically only necessary in cases that do not respond to
conservative management.
Question: 649
A 19-year-old male presents to the clinic 1 week after sustaining a knee injury
while skiing. He reports significant pain, swelling, and limited range of motion.
When performing the Lachman's test, you note that the endpoint is "mushy"
compared to the uninjured side. This indicates:
A. Partial ACL tear
B. Complete ACL tear
C. Medial collateral ligament tear
D. Posterior cruciate ligament tear
Answer: B
Explanation: A "mushy" endpoint during the Lachman's test, indicating
increased anterior tibial translation compared to the uninjured side, is
characteristic of a complete ACL tear. The soft, absent endpoint signifies the
complete disruption of the ACL's normal restraint on anterior tibial translation.
In contrast, a partial ACL tear would have a more firm, but increased, endpoint.
Medial collateral ligament and posterior cruciate ligament injuries do not
produce the same Lachman's test findings.
Question: 650
A 2-month-old infant with colic is referred to physical therapy. The physical
therapist performs an initial evaluation and notes that the infant exhibits
increased fussiness, gassiness, and crying episodes when placed in the supine
position. The most appropriate intervention for this patient is:
A. Prone positioning
B. Swaddling
C. Gentle abdominal massage
D. Pacifier use
Answer: A
Explanation: Prone positioning, also known as "tummy time," is a
recommended intervention for infants with colic. Placing the infant in the prone
position can help relieve abdominal discomfort and gas, as well as facilitate
easier breathing and digestion. In contrast, supine positioning may exacerbate
the symptoms of colic in some infants. Swaddling, abdominal massage, and
pacifier use are also helpful strategies, but prone positioning is the most
appropriate primary intervention based on the presented clinical findings.
Question: 651
A 27-year-old female presents with right knee pain and instability following a
fall from a ladder 2 weeks ago. During the physical examination, the posterior
drawer test is performed. Which of the following findings would be most
consistent with a PCL tear associated with a posterior tibial condyle fracture?
A. Firm end-feel with posterior tibial translation
B. Increased posterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur
C. Decreased posterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur
D. Increased anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur
Answer: C
Explanation: In a PCL tear associated with a posterior tibial condyle fracture,
the posterior drawer test would demonstrate decreased posterior translation of
the tibia relative to the femur. This is due to the disruption of the PCL and the
bony support from the tibial condyle fracture. A firm end-feel would indicate
an intact PCL, while increased posterior or anterior translation would be more
indicative of an isolated PCL or ACL injury, respectively.
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Online Test Engine maintains performance records, performance graphs, explanations and references (if provided). Automated test preparation makes much easy to cover complete pool of MCQs in fastest way possible. NPTE Test Engine is updated on daily basis.

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National Physical Therapy Examination Practice Test

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Just get and read these NPTE Free test PDF before you go for real test

Latest 2026 Updated NPTE Real test Questions

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