Latest PDF of NPTE: National Physical Therapy Examination 2025

National Physical Therapy Examination 2025 Practice Test

NPTE test Format | Course Contents | Course Outline | test Syllabus | test Objectives

The Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT) administers the National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE), the examination that every graduate of a physical therapy or physical therapist assistant education program must pass to become a licensed physical therapist or licensed/certified physical therapist assistant (or to regain licensure/certification if lapsed) in the United States (US). Foreign-educated candidates who wish to become licensed in the US must also take and pass this examination.

The NPTE is a computer-administered examination. The physical therapist licensure examination has five sections each with 50 questions. Of the 250 multiple choice questions, only 200 are scored. The other 50 questions are being pretested to see if they meet the standards to be included in future exams. The physical therapist assistant licensure examination has four sections with a total of 200 multiple choice questions. As in the physical therapist examination, 50 of these questions are being pre-tested and are not scored.

Scoring
The scoring ranges from 200-800. The minimum passing score is 600 for both the PT and PTA exam.

Location
Testing is administered at Prometric Testing Centers. Candidates are not required to test in the jurisdiction for which they are applying for licensure.

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NPTE
National Physical Therapy Examination 2025
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Question: 626
A 12-year-old boy with Legg-Calv�-Perthes' disease of the right hip is being evaluated for surgical treatment. Which of the following radiographic findings would indicate the need for a varus osteotomy?
ateral extrusion of the femoral head ragmentation of the femoral head ecreased joint space width
ncreased joint space width wer: A
anation: Lateral extrusion of the femoral head is a radiographic findin ould indicate the need for a varus osteotomy in the surgical manage egg-Calv�-Perthes' disease. Varus osteotomy involves rotating the fem and head into a more varus position, which helps to recontain the fe within the acetabulum and prevent further deformity. Fragmentation emoral head, decreased joint space width, and increased joint space w ot necessarily indications for a varus osteotomy, as they can occur du atural disease progression without the need for this specific surgical
edure.
L
F
D
I
Ans
Expl g
that w ment
of L oral
neck moral
head of
the f idth
are n ring
the n proc
Question: 627
A 52-year-old patient with chronic low back pain secondary to lumbar disc herniation presents to the physical therapy clinic. The patient reports that the pain is worse with prolonged sitting or standing. Which of the following TENS parameter settings would be MOST appropriate for this patient's condition?
1. High-frequency, low-intensity TENS
2. Low-frequency, high-intensity TENS
3. Burst-mode TENS
anation: Low-frequency, high-intensity TENS is the most appropriate meter for chronic low back pain secondary to lumbar disc herniation. T f TENS stimulates the small unmyelinated C-fibers and can effectiv
ce pain associated with musculoskeletal conditions, such as disc herni
-frequency, low-intensity TENS is more effective for acute pain, whil
-mode TENS and acupuncture-like TENS are primarily used for opathic pain conditions.
stion: 628
-year-old man with a history of knee osteoarthritis presents with sudd pain and swelling over the medial aspect of his knee. He reports that ptoms began after a fall while walking. On physical examination, ther erness to palpation over the pes anserine bursa. Which of the followin
OST likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
steoarthritis
Acupuncture-like TENS Answer: B
Expl
para his
type o ely
redu ation.
High e
burst neur
Que
A 62 en-
onset the
sym e is
tend g is
the M
1. O
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Trauma
4. Pes anserine bursitis Answer: C Explanation:
stion: 629
-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary dise PD) presents with progressive shortness of breath, fatigue, and periphe ma. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.30, PaCO2 of 55 mm
aO2 of 60 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosi
cute respiratory acidosis hronic respiratory acidosis cute respiratory alkalosis hronic respiratory alkalosis
wer: B
anation: The combination of a low pH, elevated PaCO2, and reduced dicative of chronic respiratory acidosis, which is commonly seen in nts with COPD. Acute respiratory acidosis would have a higher pH, a
or chronic respiratory alkalosis would have a lower PaCO2.
Trauma is the MOST likely underlying cause in this patient presentation. The patient's history of a fall, which precipitated the sudden-onset of pain and swelling, strongly suggests a traumatic etiology. While the patient's underlying osteoarthritis may have contributed to the development of pes anserine bursitis, the acute nature of the symptoms and the temporal relationship to the fall indicate that the primary underlying cause is likely a traumatic injury to the pes anserine bursa.
Que
A 65 ase
(CO ral
ede Hg,
and P s?
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. C
Ans
Expl PaO2
is in
patie nd
acute
Question: 630
A patient with a history of total knee arthroplasty (TKA) presents with decreased quadriceps strength and difficulty performing functional activities.
1. Electrical stimulation of the quadriceps muscle.
2. Passive range of motion (PROM) exercises.
3. Strengthening exercises using resistance bands.
anation: The MOST appropriate intervention to address the decreased riceps strength and difficulty performing functional activities in a pati a history of total knee arthroplasty (TKA) is strengthening exercises u tance bands. Restoring quadriceps strength is a critical component of bilitation following TKA.
stion: 631
tient with severe diarrhea presents with the following arterial blood g es:
.58
rbonate (HCO3-): 40 mEq/L O2: 50 mmHg
2: 92 mmHg
Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) for pain relief. Answer: C
Expl
quad ent
with sing
resis reha
Que
A pa as
valu pH: 7
Bica PaC PaO
FiO2: 0.21
Which of the following best describes the patient's acid-base status?
1. Respiratory acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metabolic acidosis
Answer: D
stion: 632
-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with ually worsening pain and swelling over the medial aspect of her knee. rts that the symptoms are worse with activity and are accompanied by ness. On physical examination, there is tenderness to palpation over th rine bursa. Which of the following is the MOST likely underlying cau
atient's condition?
steoarthritis heumatoid arthritis rauma
es anserine bursitis wer: B
Explanation: The patient has a high pH (7.58), high bicarbonate (40 mEq/L), and high PaCO2 (50 mmHg), indicating metabolic alkalosis. The severe diarrhea has led to a loss of gastric acid (hydrochloric acid), resulting in an increase in pH and bicarbonate.
Que
A 48
grad She
repo
stiff e pes
anse se of
this p
1. O
2. R
3. T
4. P
Ans Explanation:
Rheumatoid arthritis is the MOST likely underlying cause in this patient presentation. The patient's history of rheumatoid arthritis, a chronic autoimmune condition, increases her risk of developing bursitis, including pes anserine bursitis. The gradual worsening of symptoms with activity and accompanying stiffness are characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis-related joint inflammation. While the localized tenderness over the pes anserine bursa on
physical examination suggests the presence of pes anserine bursitis, this is likely a manifestation of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis in this case.
Question: 633
ure is 150/95 mmHg. Which of the following is the MOST likely cau ypertension?
olume overload
enin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activation ympathetic nervous system overactivity ndothelial dysfunction and vascular stiffness
wer: B
anation: Chronic kidney disease is often associated with activation of
-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to sodium and fluid retentio s vasoconstriction, which can result in hypertension. Volume overlo pathetic overactivity, and endothelial dysfunction are also contributing
rs, but the primary mechanism in chronic kidney disease is the egulation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
A 40-year-old patient with a history of chronic kidney disease presents to physical therapy with generalized weakness and fatigue. Their resting blood press se of
this h
1. V
2. R
3. S
4. E
Ans
Expl the
renin n as
well a ad,
sym facto dysr
Question: 634
A 45-year-old computer programmer presents with gradual-onset numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits of her right hand. On examination, she has decreased sensation to light touch in the ulnar nerve distribution and weakness with abduction of the 5th digit. Tinel's sign is positive over the pisiform bone. The MOST likely cause of the patient's symptoms is:
1. Compression of the ulnar nerve at Guyon's canal
2. Compression of the median nerve at the carpal tunnel
3. Entrapment of the radial nerve in the spiral groove
4. Entrapment of the posterior interosseous nerve Answer: A
nd 5th digits, along with ulnar nerve-specific sensory and motor defic aracteristic of ulnar nerve entrapment. The positive Tinel's sign over t orm bone, which is a key landmark for Guyon's canal, indicates that t ST likely cause is compression of the ulnar nerve as it passes through
osseous tunnel at the wrist. Carpal tunnel syndrome would affect the an nerve distribution, radial nerve entrapment would cause more prox ptoms, and posterior interosseous nerve entrapment would not produce rved ulnar nerve deficits.
stion: 635
year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy presents to physical py with complaints of increased difficulty with ambulation and freque During the assessment, the physical therapist observes that the child h ficant tightness in the hip flexor and hamstring muscle groups, which ing his range of motion and contributing to a crouched gait pattern. T
Explanation: The patient's presentation of isolated numbness and tingling in the 4th a its,
is ch he
pisif he
MO this
fibro-
medi imal
sym the
obse
Que
A 9-
thera nt
falls. as
signi is
limit he
MOST appropriate initial intervention for this patient is:
1. Referring the patient to an orthopedic surgeon for consideration of multilevel orthopedic surgery to address the muscle contractures and Improve gait.
2. Initiating a course of serial casting to gradually increase range of motion in the hip and knee joints.
3. Recommending the use of knee-ankle-foot orthoses (KAFOs) to provide stability and support during ambulation.
4. Implementing a physical therapy plan focused on strengthening the lower extremity musculature and stretching the tight muscle groups.
Answer: D
pastic diplegic cerebral palsy and a crouched gait pattern is to imple ysical therapy plan focused on strengthening the lower extremity culature and stretching the tight muscle groups.
astic diplegic cerebral palsy, the lower extremities are typically more ted than the upper extremities, and the muscle tightness in the hip fle amstrings can contribute to a crouched gait pattern. A targeted physi py program that addresses these muscle imbalances through a combin rengthening and stretching exercises can help Improve the child's rang on, joint positioning, and overall gait mechanics.
rring the patient to an orthopedic surgeon for multilevel orthopedic su on A) may be a consideration, but it should not be the initial intervent ore conservative management should be attempted first.
ating a course of serial casting (option B) can be an effective interventi should be considered after the initial strengthening and stretching
ram has been implemented, as it may be more appropriate for more se
Explanation: The most appropriate initial intervention for the 9-year-old child with s ment
a ph mus
In sp
affec xors
and h cal
thera ation
of st e of
moti
Refe rgery
(opti ion,
as m
Initi on,
but it
prog vere
or resistant muscle contractures.
Recommending the use of knee-ankle-foot orthoses (KAFOs) (option C) can be a valuable adjunct to the physical therapy program, but it should not be the primary intervention, as it does not address the underlying muscle imbalances and contractures.
Question: 636
ift-off test elly-press test
xternal rotation lag sign mpty can test
wer: C
anation: The external rotation lag sign is a specific test used to assess rity of the teres minor muscle. This test evaluates the patient's ability ely maintain their shoulder in external rotation against gravity, which arily controlled by the teres minor. The other tests listed assess differe lder muscles and functions.
stion: 637
-year-old woman presents with weakness of wrist and finger flexion, s decreased sensation in the distribution of the median nerve. Where
A 62-year-old patient with a history of a previous rotator cuff repair presents with persistent shoulder pain and decreased range of motion. During the physical examination, the physical therapist notes weakness with external rotation of the shoulder. Which of the following tests would be the most appropriate to assess the integrity of the teres minor muscle?
1. L
2. B
3. E
4. E
Ans
Expl the
integ to
activ is
prim nt
shou
Que
A 40 as
well a is
the MOST likely site of median nerve entrapment?
1. Pronator teres
2. Carpal tunnel
3. Anterior interosseous nerve
4. Lacertus fibrosus
Answer: B
Explanation: The patient's symptoms of median nerve distribution weakness and sensory deficits are most consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome, where the median nerve becomes entrapped as it passes through the carpal tunnel at the wrist. This is the most common site of median nerve entrapment.
stion: 638
-year-old patient is 2 weeks post-op from a total hip arthroplasty usin erolateral surgical approach. During a physical therapy session, the pist instructs the patient to perform active hip flexion, medial rotation ction exercises. What is the primary concern with this intervention at
of recovery?
he movements may lead to excessive stress on the hip abductor muscl he movements could increase the risk of postoperative hip dislocation. he movements may cause excessive pain and inflammation in the hip he movements may delay the healing process of the posterior hip caps
wer: B
anation: The posterolateral surgical approach for total hip arthroplasty ves detachment and reattachment of the posterior hip capsule and sho nal rotator muscles. This makes the hip joint particularly vulnerable t
Que
A 62 g a
post
thera , and
addu this
stage
1. T es.
2. T
3. T joint.
4. T ule.
Ans Expl
invol rt
exter o
dislocation in the early postoperative period, especially with the combination of hip flexion, medial rotation, and adduction. This specific movement pattern places the prosthetic femoral head in a precarious position relative to the acetabular component, significantly increasing the risk of dislocation. Avoiding these movements is crucial during the initial 2-4 weeks of recovery to allow the posterior soft tissues to heal and regain stability around the new hip joint.
Question: 639
A 55-year-old patient with heart failure is participating in a cardiac rehabilitation program. During a moderate intensity exercise session, the patient's oxygen uptake efficiency slope (OUES) is measured and found to be decreased compared to normative values. This OUES response is:
ormal mproved lunted oncerning
wer: C
anation: The oxygen uptake efficiency slope (OUES) is a measure of orespiratory fitness, and in patients with heart failure, it is typically ed compared to healthy individuals. A decreased OUES during mode sity exercise indicates the patient's ability to efficiently utilize oxygen ired, a hallmark of the cardiovascular and respiratory limitations seen failure. This blunted OUES response is concerning and may warrant er evaluation and adjustments to the exercise prescription to optimize nt's exercise capacity.
N
I
B
C
Ans Expl
cardi
blunt rate
inten is
impa in
heart
furth the
patie
Question: 640
A 9-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy presents to physical therapy with complaints of decreased mobility and frequent falls. During the evaluation, the physical therapist observes that the child has significant tightness in the hamstring and gastrocnemius muscle groups, leading to a
crouched gait pattern. The MOST appropriate intervention to address the child's primary impairment is:
1. Referring the child to an orthopedic surgeon for consideration of lower extremity tendon lengthening or muscle-tendon unit lengthening procedures.
ecommending the use of ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs) to provide stabili upport during ambulation.
nitiating a course of serial casting to gradually increase range of motio nkle and knee joints.
wer: B
anation: The most appropriate intervention to address the primary irment of the 9-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy and ched gait pattern is to implement a physical therapy plan focused on gthening the quadriceps and hip extensor muscle groups, as well as ching the tight muscle groups.
astic diplegic cerebral palsy, the lower extremities are typically more ted, and the tightness in the hamstring and gastrocnemius muscle gro ontribute to a crouched gait pattern. By focusing on strengthening the gonist muscle groups, such as the quadriceps and hip extensors, and ementing a targeted stretching program for the tight muscle groups, th
Implementing a physical therapy plan focused on strengthening the quadriceps and hip extensor muscle groups, as well as stretching the tight muscle groups.
2. R ty
and s
3. I n in
the a Ans
Expl
impa a
crou stren stret
In sp
affec ups
can c anta
impl e
physical therapist can help address the underlying muscle imbalances and Improve the child's gait mechanics.
Referring the child to an orthopedic surgeon for lower extremity tendon lengthening or muscle-tendon unit lengthening procedures (option A) may be a consideration, but it should not be the initial intervention, as more conservative management should be attempted first.
Recommending the use of ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs) (option C) can be a valuable adjunct to the physical therapy program, but it should not be the primary intervention, as it does not directly address the underlying muscle imbalances.
ram has been implemented, as it may be more appropriate for more se sistant muscle contractures.
stion: 641
-year-old patient presents with a new-onset confusion and disorientati atient's medical history is significant for well-controlled type 2 diabe tus. The most likely contributing factor to the patient's disorientation
yperglycemia ypoglycemia iabetic ketoacidosis
erebrovascular accident
wer: B
anation: Hypoglycemia is the most likely contributing factor to the
Initiating a course of serial casting (option D) can be an effective intervention, but it should be considered after the initial strengthening and stretching
prog vere
or re
Que
A 62 on.
The p tes
melli is:
1. H
2. H
3. D
4. C
Ans Expl
patient's disorientation in this case. Hypoglycemia can cause neurological symptoms, including confusion and disorientation, particularly in patients with diabetes. Hyperglycemia and diabetic ketoacidosis are more likely to cause gradual onset of altered mental status, not sudden-onset disorientation. A cerebrovascular accident would be less likely in a patient with well-controlled diabetes.
Question: 642
A 75-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease is brought to the emergency department with confusion, lethargy, and Kussmaul breathing. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals the following values:
ch of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's acid-base der?
iabetic ketoacidosis hronic respiratory acidosis cute renal failure
hronic metabolic acidosis wer: D
anation: The patient's arterial blood gas values (pH 7.14, PaCO2 18 Hg, HCO3- 6 mmol/L) indicate the presence of a severe metabolic aci ow HCO3- concentration and low pH are characteristic of metabolic osis, while the low PaCO2 represents respiratory compensation. Chron ey disease is a common cause of chronic metabolic acidosis due to the ired ability of the kidneys to excrete acid and retain bicarbonate.
pH 7.14, PaCO2 18 mmHg, HCO3- 6 mmol/L.
Whi disor
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. C
Ans Expl
mm dosis.
The l
acid ic
kidn impa
Question: 643
A 27-year-old male presents to the clinic 1 week after sustaining a knee injury while playing basketball. He reports significant pain, swelling, and decreased range of motion. When performing the Lachman's test, you note increased anterior tibial translation with a "soft endpoint" compared to the uninjured side.
What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
1. Immobilize the knee in a brace and refer for physical therapy
2. Obtain radiographs to rule out a fracture
3. Recommend immediate arthroscopic ACL reconstruction
4. Initiate a course of oral corticosteroids
anation: The appropriate next step in management for this patient wit ected complete ACL tear based on the positive Lachman's test finding mmobilize the knee in a brace and refer the patient for physical therapy e the Lachman's test suggests a complete ACL tear, further diagnostic
ing such as MRI is needed to confirm the diagnosis and assess for ciated injuries. Immediate surgical referral or corticosteroid use would ature without confirmed MRI findings. Radiographs are indicated to r fracture, but are not the primary next step.
stion: 644
year-old girl with spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy presents to physi py for an initial evaluation. The girl's parents report that she has diffic ross motor skills, such as walking and running, and experiences freq During the evaluation, the physical therapist observes that the girl ha ficant muscle spasticity in all four limbs, with a predominance in the l
Answer: A
Expl h a
susp s is
to i .
Whil imag
asso be
prem ule
out a
Que
A 7- cal
thera ulty
with g uent
falls. s
signi ower
extremities. The most appropriate intervention for this patient is:
1. Prescribing a home exercise program focused on strengthening the upper extremities to Improve her ability to push herself in a manual wheelchair.
2. Recommending the use of ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs) to Improve her gait and reduce the risk of falls.
3. Referring the patient to an occupational therapist for evaluation and
recommendations on assistive technology to enhance her independence in daily living activities.
4. Initiating a course of constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) to Improve upper extremity function and motor control.
Answer: B
ic quadriplegic cerebral palsy is to recommend the use of ankle-foot oses (AFOs) to Improve her gait and reduce the risk of falls.
astic quadriplegic cerebral palsy, the predominant spasticity is typical ower extremities, which can lead to poor gait mechanics and an increa f falls. AFOs can help Improve the alignment and function of the ank oot, providing support and stability during ambulation. This can help nt walk more safely and reduce the frequency of falls, which is a ficant concern reported by the parents.
cribing a home exercise program focused on strengthening the upper mities (option A) may not be the most appropriate initial intervention, rimary issue is the impaired gait and increased fall risk due to the low mity spasticity.
rring the patient to an occupational therapist for assistive technology uation (option C) can be a valuable complementary intervention, but it ld not be the primary focus at this stage, as the physical therapist shou
Explanation: The most appropriate intervention for the 7-year-old girl with spast
orth
In sp ly in
the l sed
risk o le
and f the
patie signi
Pres
extre as
the p er
extre
Refe eval
shou ld
first address the immediate mobility and safety concerns.
Initiating constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) (option D) is not the most appropriate intervention in this case, as CIMT is typically used to Improve upper extremity function and motor control, which are not the primary concerns reported by the parents.
Question: 645
A 44-year-old male patient presents with mid-thoracic spine pain and limited rotation. Examination reveals hypomobility with left rotation at the T8-T9 spinal segment. Which of the following techniques would be most appropriate to address the hypomobility?
rone mid-thoracic spine segmental rotation mobilization
eated mid-thoracic spine Maitland mobilization in side-bending upine mid-thoracic spine Mulligan sustained natural apophyseal glide AG)
idelying mid-thoracic spine high-velocity low-amplitude thrust wer: A
anation: The hypomobility with left rotation at the T8-T9 spinal segm ates a specific mobility deficit in the rotational plane. A prone mid- cic spine segmental rotation mobilization would be the most appropri nique to address this hypomobility. This technique allows for targeted lization of the restricted rotational motion at the specific spinal segm
stion: 646
tient presents with a complete ACL tear confirmed by magnetic reson
P
S
S
(SN
S
Ans
Expl ent
indic
thora ate
tech
mobi ent.
Que
A pa ance
imaging (MRI). Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
1. Immediate surgical reconstruction
2. Functional bracing and physical therapy
3. Immobilization in a long leg cast
4. Corticosteroid injection into the knee joint
Answer: B
stion: 647
-year-old woman presents with weakness of wrist and finger flexion, s decreased sensation in the distribution of the median nerve. Where OST likely site of median nerve entrapment?
ronator teres arpal tunnel
nterior interosseous nerve acertus fibrosus
wer: B
anation: The patient's symptoms of median nerve distribution weakne ensory deficits are most consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome, wher an nerve becomes entrapped as it passes through the carpal tunnel at t
Explanation: The initial management of a complete ACL tear typically involves a trial of functional bracing and physical therapy, unless the patient has an associated unstable knee or other significant ligamentous/meniscal injury. Surgical reconstruction is often considered if conservative management fails to restore knee stability and function. Immobilization and corticosteroid injections are not recommended as first-line treatment for complete ACL tears.
Que
A 38 as
well a is
the M
1. P
2. C
3. A
4. L
Ans
Expl ss
and s e the
medi he
wrist. This is the most common site of median nerve entrapment.
Question: 648
A 14-year-old male soccer player presents with a 6-month history of anterior knee pain that is aggravated by running and kicking. Physical examination
reveals tenderness and swelling over the tibial tuberosity. Radiographic imaging shows fragmentation and irregularity of the tibial apophysis. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
1. Recommendation of complete rest from all sports activities
2. Prescription of oral anti-inflammatory medication
nitiation of a physical therapy program with eccentric strengthening wer: D
anation: The MOST appropriate next step in the management of this nt with Osgood-Schlatter disease is the initiation of a physical therap ram with a focus on eccentric strengthening exercises. Physical therap
ddress the underlying muscle imbalances and biomechanical factors ibute to the condition, while allowing the patient to continue participa orts activities with appropriate modifications. Recommendation of plete rest from all sports activities is not necessary and may lead to nditioning and decreased long-term function. Prescription of oral anti- mmatory medication can provide symptomatic relief, but does not add nderlying pathology. Referral to an orthopedic surgeon for surgical vention is typically only necessary in cases that do not respond to ervative management.
Referral to an orthopedic surgeon for surgical intervention
3. I
Ans Expl
patie y
prog y can
help a that
contr ting
in sp com deco
infla ress
the u inter cons
Question: 649
A 19-year-old male presents to the clinic 1 week after sustaining a knee injury while skiing. He reports significant pain, swelling, and limited range of motion. When performing the Lachman's test, you note that the endpoint is "mushy" compared to the uninjured side. This indicates:
1. Partial ACL tear
2. Complete ACL tear
3. Medial collateral ligament tear
4. Posterior cruciate ligament tear
Answer: B
acteristic of a complete ACL tear. The soft, absent endpoint signifies t plete disruption of the ACL's normal restraint on anterior tibial transla ntrast, a partial ACL tear would have a more firm, but increased, end ial collateral ligament and posterior cruciate ligament injuries do not uce the same Lachman's test findings.
stion: 650
month-old infant with colic is referred to physical therapy. The physic pist performs an initial evaluation and notes that the infant exhibits ased fussiness, gassiness, and crying episodes when placed in the supi ion. The most appropriate intervention for this patient is:
rone positioning waddling
entle abdominal massage acifier use
Explanation: A "mushy" endpoint during the Lachman's test, indicating increased anterior tibial translation compared to the uninjured side, is
char he
com tion.
In co point.
Med prod
Que
A 2- al
thera
incre ne
posit
1. P
2. S
3. G
4. P
Answer: A
Explanation: Prone positioning, also known as "tummy time," is a recommended intervention for infants with colic. Placing the infant in the prone position can help relieve abdominal discomfort and gas, as well as facilitate easier breathing and digestion. In contrast, supine positioning may exacerbate
the symptoms of colic in some infants. Swaddling, abdominal massage, and pacifier use are also helpful strategies, but prone positioning is the most appropriate primary intervention based on the presented clinical findings.
Question: 651
-year-old female presents with right knee pain and instability followi rom a ladder 2 weeks ago. During the physical examination, the poste er test is performed. Which of the following findings would be most istent with a PCL tear associated with a posterior tibial condyle fractu
irm end-feel with posterior tibial translation
creased posterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur ecreased posterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur ncreased anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur
wer: C
anation: In a PCL tear associated with a posterior tibial condyle fractu osterior drawer test would demonstrate decreased posterior translatio bia relative to the femur. This is due to the disruption of the PCL and support from the tibial condyle fracture. A firm end-feel would indic tact PCL, while increased posterior or anterior translation would be m ative of an isolated PCL or ACL injury, respectively.
A 27 ng a
fall f rior
draw
cons re?
1. F
2. In
3. D
4. I
Ans
Expl re,
the p n of
the ti the
bony ate
an in ore
indic

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Frequently Asked Questions about Killexams Practice Tests

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Killexams provide real NPTE test practice questions that will help you pass your test with good marks. It provides two file formats. PDF and VCE. PDF can be opened with any PDF reader that is compatible with your phone, iPad, or laptop. You can read PDF Questions Answers via mobile, iPad, laptop, or other devices. You can also print PDF Questions Answers to make your book read. VCE test simulator is software that killexams provide to practice exams and take a test of all the questions. It is similar to your experience in the real test. You can get PDF or both PDF and test Simulator.

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There are several Questions Answers provider in the market claiming that they provide Real test Questions, Braindumps, Practice Tests, Study Guides, cheat sheet and many other names, but most of them are re-sellers that do not update their contents frequently. Killexams.com is best website of Year 2025 that understands the issue candidates face when they spend their time studying obsolete contents taken from free pdf get sites or reseller sites. That is why killexams update test Questions Answers with the same frequency as they are updated in Real Test. Testprep provided by killexams.com are Reliable, Up-to-date and validated by Certified Professionals. They maintain dumps collection of valid Questions that is kept up-to-date by checking update on daily basis.

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